Solving with L'Hôpital's rule. What is wrong?












1












$begingroup$


L'Hôpital's rule can be used infinitely many times as the limit remains $0/0$. However, this problem does not work with L'Hôpital's rule (I may have counted wrong).



Here it is:
$$lim _{xto 0}left(frac{left(e^x+sin xright)x+e^x-cos x}{x^2}right)$$
We use L'Hôpital's rule once:
$$lim _{xto 0}left(frac{2sin xleft(xright)+xleft(cosleft(xright)+e^xright)+2e^x}{2x}right)$$
One more time:
$$left(frac{−xsinleft(xright)+3cosleft(xright)+left(x+3right)e^x}{2}right)$$
This will equal to $3$. But the real answer is $1$:
$$lim _{xto 0}left(frac{left(e^x+sin xright)x+e^x-cos x}{x^2}right)=1$$



$3$ is not equal to $1$



Thoughts?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    When doing MathJax, you need to put the maths between dollar signs.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 12 at 19:56










  • $begingroup$
    $6$ is not equal to $1$, but $3$ is also not equal to $6$. So is it $6$ or $3$?
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 12 at 20:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't think you differentiated the first numerator correctly.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 12 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    Please check the statement of your limit. Is it correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Z
    Jan 12 at 20:07






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For me, what you posted tends to $infty$.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 12 at 20:09
















1












$begingroup$


L'Hôpital's rule can be used infinitely many times as the limit remains $0/0$. However, this problem does not work with L'Hôpital's rule (I may have counted wrong).



Here it is:
$$lim _{xto 0}left(frac{left(e^x+sin xright)x+e^x-cos x}{x^2}right)$$
We use L'Hôpital's rule once:
$$lim _{xto 0}left(frac{2sin xleft(xright)+xleft(cosleft(xright)+e^xright)+2e^x}{2x}right)$$
One more time:
$$left(frac{−xsinleft(xright)+3cosleft(xright)+left(x+3right)e^x}{2}right)$$
This will equal to $3$. But the real answer is $1$:
$$lim _{xto 0}left(frac{left(e^x+sin xright)x+e^x-cos x}{x^2}right)=1$$



$3$ is not equal to $1$



Thoughts?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    When doing MathJax, you need to put the maths between dollar signs.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 12 at 19:56










  • $begingroup$
    $6$ is not equal to $1$, but $3$ is also not equal to $6$. So is it $6$ or $3$?
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 12 at 20:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't think you differentiated the first numerator correctly.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 12 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    Please check the statement of your limit. Is it correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Z
    Jan 12 at 20:07






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For me, what you posted tends to $infty$.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 12 at 20:09














1












1








1


1



$begingroup$


L'Hôpital's rule can be used infinitely many times as the limit remains $0/0$. However, this problem does not work with L'Hôpital's rule (I may have counted wrong).



Here it is:
$$lim _{xto 0}left(frac{left(e^x+sin xright)x+e^x-cos x}{x^2}right)$$
We use L'Hôpital's rule once:
$$lim _{xto 0}left(frac{2sin xleft(xright)+xleft(cosleft(xright)+e^xright)+2e^x}{2x}right)$$
One more time:
$$left(frac{−xsinleft(xright)+3cosleft(xright)+left(x+3right)e^x}{2}right)$$
This will equal to $3$. But the real answer is $1$:
$$lim _{xto 0}left(frac{left(e^x+sin xright)x+e^x-cos x}{x^2}right)=1$$



$3$ is not equal to $1$



Thoughts?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




L'Hôpital's rule can be used infinitely many times as the limit remains $0/0$. However, this problem does not work with L'Hôpital's rule (I may have counted wrong).



Here it is:
$$lim _{xto 0}left(frac{left(e^x+sin xright)x+e^x-cos x}{x^2}right)$$
We use L'Hôpital's rule once:
$$lim _{xto 0}left(frac{2sin xleft(xright)+xleft(cosleft(xright)+e^xright)+2e^x}{2x}right)$$
One more time:
$$left(frac{−xsinleft(xright)+3cosleft(xright)+left(x+3right)e^x}{2}right)$$
This will equal to $3$. But the real answer is $1$:
$$lim _{xto 0}left(frac{left(e^x+sin xright)x+e^x-cos x}{x^2}right)=1$$



$3$ is not equal to $1$



Thoughts?







calculus limits






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 13 at 16:26









Robert Z

97.2k1066137




97.2k1066137










asked Jan 12 at 19:54









Jonathan LarssonJonathan Larsson

83




83








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    When doing MathJax, you need to put the maths between dollar signs.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 12 at 19:56










  • $begingroup$
    $6$ is not equal to $1$, but $3$ is also not equal to $6$. So is it $6$ or $3$?
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 12 at 20:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't think you differentiated the first numerator correctly.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 12 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    Please check the statement of your limit. Is it correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Z
    Jan 12 at 20:07






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For me, what you posted tends to $infty$.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 12 at 20:09














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    When doing MathJax, you need to put the maths between dollar signs.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 12 at 19:56










  • $begingroup$
    $6$ is not equal to $1$, but $3$ is also not equal to $6$. So is it $6$ or $3$?
    $endgroup$
    – Dietrich Burde
    Jan 12 at 20:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I don't think you differentiated the first numerator correctly.
    $endgroup$
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jan 12 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    Please check the statement of your limit. Is it correct?
    $endgroup$
    – Robert Z
    Jan 12 at 20:07






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    For me, what you posted tends to $infty$.
    $endgroup$
    – Bernard
    Jan 12 at 20:09








2




2




$begingroup$
When doing MathJax, you need to put the maths between dollar signs.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 12 at 19:56




$begingroup$
When doing MathJax, you need to put the maths between dollar signs.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 12 at 19:56












$begingroup$
$6$ is not equal to $1$, but $3$ is also not equal to $6$. So is it $6$ or $3$?
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Jan 12 at 20:00




$begingroup$
$6$ is not equal to $1$, but $3$ is also not equal to $6$. So is it $6$ or $3$?
$endgroup$
– Dietrich Burde
Jan 12 at 20:00




1




1




$begingroup$
I don't think you differentiated the first numerator correctly.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 12 at 20:01




$begingroup$
I don't think you differentiated the first numerator correctly.
$endgroup$
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jan 12 at 20:01












$begingroup$
Please check the statement of your limit. Is it correct?
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jan 12 at 20:07




$begingroup$
Please check the statement of your limit. Is it correct?
$endgroup$
– Robert Z
Jan 12 at 20:07




1




1




$begingroup$
For me, what you posted tends to $infty$.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jan 12 at 20:09




$begingroup$
For me, what you posted tends to $infty$.
$endgroup$
– Bernard
Jan 12 at 20:09










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

After applying L-Hopital once, the expression that you obtain is not of the indeterminate form ( 0/0 or infinity/infinity) , hence you cannot apply l- hopital again.
Now as after applying l hopital you do not get a finite limit, it does not imply that actual limit does not exist, its just that L-Hopital method fails here.



Important - If you use l'Hopital rule and find that the limit does not exist you cannot conclude that the initial limit does not exist. In that case you must use other methods to analyse the limit.



Note - plotting its graph suggests that its limit does not exist at 0 . It shoots towards infinity.
Also note that by using L'Hopital method you cannot conclude the existence of limit. That's why i used this graphical method of analysis.



enter image description here






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    2












    $begingroup$

    You can't apply l'Hôpital on a non indeterminate form.



    Let's see what happens with a Taylor expansion at degree $2$:
    begin{align}
    (e^x+sin x)x+e^x-cos x
    &=(1+x+x+o(x))x+1+x+frac{x^2}{2}-1+frac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2) \
    &=x+2x^2+x+x^2+o(x^2)\
    &=2x+3x^2+o(x^2)
    end{align}

    Thus we see that the given limit cannot be finite (and indeed it is $-infty$ from the left and $infty$ from the right).



    It's also difficult to understand how the given solution could be $1$, unless we do a sign switch:
    begin{align}
    (e^x+sin x)x-e^x+cos x
    &=(1+x+x+o(x))x-1-x-frac{x^2}{2}+1-frac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2) \
    &=x+2x^2-x-x^2+o(x^2)\
    &=x^2+o(x^2)
    end{align}

    This proves that
    $$
    lim_{xto0}frac{(e^x+sin x)x-e^x+cos x}{x^2}=1
    $$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$





















      1












      $begingroup$

      You can't use L^Hopital's rule since $$lim _{xto 0}left({2sin xleft(xright)+xleft(cosleft(xright)+e^xright)+2e^x}right)=2ne 0$$Also the limit doesn't exist since it is $Large{2over pm 0}$ .






      share|cite|improve this answer









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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

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        3 Answers
        3






        active

        oldest

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        active

        oldest

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        active

        oldest

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        0












        $begingroup$

        After applying L-Hopital once, the expression that you obtain is not of the indeterminate form ( 0/0 or infinity/infinity) , hence you cannot apply l- hopital again.
        Now as after applying l hopital you do not get a finite limit, it does not imply that actual limit does not exist, its just that L-Hopital method fails here.



        Important - If you use l'Hopital rule and find that the limit does not exist you cannot conclude that the initial limit does not exist. In that case you must use other methods to analyse the limit.



        Note - plotting its graph suggests that its limit does not exist at 0 . It shoots towards infinity.
        Also note that by using L'Hopital method you cannot conclude the existence of limit. That's why i used this graphical method of analysis.



        enter image description here






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$


















          0












          $begingroup$

          After applying L-Hopital once, the expression that you obtain is not of the indeterminate form ( 0/0 or infinity/infinity) , hence you cannot apply l- hopital again.
          Now as after applying l hopital you do not get a finite limit, it does not imply that actual limit does not exist, its just that L-Hopital method fails here.



          Important - If you use l'Hopital rule and find that the limit does not exist you cannot conclude that the initial limit does not exist. In that case you must use other methods to analyse the limit.



          Note - plotting its graph suggests that its limit does not exist at 0 . It shoots towards infinity.
          Also note that by using L'Hopital method you cannot conclude the existence of limit. That's why i used this graphical method of analysis.



          enter image description here






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$
















            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            After applying L-Hopital once, the expression that you obtain is not of the indeterminate form ( 0/0 or infinity/infinity) , hence you cannot apply l- hopital again.
            Now as after applying l hopital you do not get a finite limit, it does not imply that actual limit does not exist, its just that L-Hopital method fails here.



            Important - If you use l'Hopital rule and find that the limit does not exist you cannot conclude that the initial limit does not exist. In that case you must use other methods to analyse the limit.



            Note - plotting its graph suggests that its limit does not exist at 0 . It shoots towards infinity.
            Also note that by using L'Hopital method you cannot conclude the existence of limit. That's why i used this graphical method of analysis.



            enter image description here






            share|cite|improve this answer











            $endgroup$



            After applying L-Hopital once, the expression that you obtain is not of the indeterminate form ( 0/0 or infinity/infinity) , hence you cannot apply l- hopital again.
            Now as after applying l hopital you do not get a finite limit, it does not imply that actual limit does not exist, its just that L-Hopital method fails here.



            Important - If you use l'Hopital rule and find that the limit does not exist you cannot conclude that the initial limit does not exist. In that case you must use other methods to analyse the limit.



            Note - plotting its graph suggests that its limit does not exist at 0 . It shoots towards infinity.
            Also note that by using L'Hopital method you cannot conclude the existence of limit. That's why i used this graphical method of analysis.



            enter image description here







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Jan 12 at 20:31

























            answered Jan 12 at 20:05









            Swapnil KothriwalSwapnil Kothriwal

            513




            513























                2












                $begingroup$

                You can't apply l'Hôpital on a non indeterminate form.



                Let's see what happens with a Taylor expansion at degree $2$:
                begin{align}
                (e^x+sin x)x+e^x-cos x
                &=(1+x+x+o(x))x+1+x+frac{x^2}{2}-1+frac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2) \
                &=x+2x^2+x+x^2+o(x^2)\
                &=2x+3x^2+o(x^2)
                end{align}

                Thus we see that the given limit cannot be finite (and indeed it is $-infty$ from the left and $infty$ from the right).



                It's also difficult to understand how the given solution could be $1$, unless we do a sign switch:
                begin{align}
                (e^x+sin x)x-e^x+cos x
                &=(1+x+x+o(x))x-1-x-frac{x^2}{2}+1-frac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2) \
                &=x+2x^2-x-x^2+o(x^2)\
                &=x^2+o(x^2)
                end{align}

                This proves that
                $$
                lim_{xto0}frac{(e^x+sin x)x-e^x+cos x}{x^2}=1
                $$






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$


















                  2












                  $begingroup$

                  You can't apply l'Hôpital on a non indeterminate form.



                  Let's see what happens with a Taylor expansion at degree $2$:
                  begin{align}
                  (e^x+sin x)x+e^x-cos x
                  &=(1+x+x+o(x))x+1+x+frac{x^2}{2}-1+frac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2) \
                  &=x+2x^2+x+x^2+o(x^2)\
                  &=2x+3x^2+o(x^2)
                  end{align}

                  Thus we see that the given limit cannot be finite (and indeed it is $-infty$ from the left and $infty$ from the right).



                  It's also difficult to understand how the given solution could be $1$, unless we do a sign switch:
                  begin{align}
                  (e^x+sin x)x-e^x+cos x
                  &=(1+x+x+o(x))x-1-x-frac{x^2}{2}+1-frac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2) \
                  &=x+2x^2-x-x^2+o(x^2)\
                  &=x^2+o(x^2)
                  end{align}

                  This proves that
                  $$
                  lim_{xto0}frac{(e^x+sin x)x-e^x+cos x}{x^2}=1
                  $$






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$
















                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    You can't apply l'Hôpital on a non indeterminate form.



                    Let's see what happens with a Taylor expansion at degree $2$:
                    begin{align}
                    (e^x+sin x)x+e^x-cos x
                    &=(1+x+x+o(x))x+1+x+frac{x^2}{2}-1+frac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2) \
                    &=x+2x^2+x+x^2+o(x^2)\
                    &=2x+3x^2+o(x^2)
                    end{align}

                    Thus we see that the given limit cannot be finite (and indeed it is $-infty$ from the left and $infty$ from the right).



                    It's also difficult to understand how the given solution could be $1$, unless we do a sign switch:
                    begin{align}
                    (e^x+sin x)x-e^x+cos x
                    &=(1+x+x+o(x))x-1-x-frac{x^2}{2}+1-frac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2) \
                    &=x+2x^2-x-x^2+o(x^2)\
                    &=x^2+o(x^2)
                    end{align}

                    This proves that
                    $$
                    lim_{xto0}frac{(e^x+sin x)x-e^x+cos x}{x^2}=1
                    $$






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    You can't apply l'Hôpital on a non indeterminate form.



                    Let's see what happens with a Taylor expansion at degree $2$:
                    begin{align}
                    (e^x+sin x)x+e^x-cos x
                    &=(1+x+x+o(x))x+1+x+frac{x^2}{2}-1+frac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2) \
                    &=x+2x^2+x+x^2+o(x^2)\
                    &=2x+3x^2+o(x^2)
                    end{align}

                    Thus we see that the given limit cannot be finite (and indeed it is $-infty$ from the left and $infty$ from the right).



                    It's also difficult to understand how the given solution could be $1$, unless we do a sign switch:
                    begin{align}
                    (e^x+sin x)x-e^x+cos x
                    &=(1+x+x+o(x))x-1-x-frac{x^2}{2}+1-frac{x^2}{2}+o(x^2) \
                    &=x+2x^2-x-x^2+o(x^2)\
                    &=x^2+o(x^2)
                    end{align}

                    This proves that
                    $$
                    lim_{xto0}frac{(e^x+sin x)x-e^x+cos x}{x^2}=1
                    $$







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Jan 12 at 22:06









                    egregegreg

                    181k1485203




                    181k1485203























                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        You can't use L^Hopital's rule since $$lim _{xto 0}left({2sin xleft(xright)+xleft(cosleft(xright)+e^xright)+2e^x}right)=2ne 0$$Also the limit doesn't exist since it is $Large{2over pm 0}$ .






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$


















                          1












                          $begingroup$

                          You can't use L^Hopital's rule since $$lim _{xto 0}left({2sin xleft(xright)+xleft(cosleft(xright)+e^xright)+2e^x}right)=2ne 0$$Also the limit doesn't exist since it is $Large{2over pm 0}$ .






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$
















                            1












                            1








                            1





                            $begingroup$

                            You can't use L^Hopital's rule since $$lim _{xto 0}left({2sin xleft(xright)+xleft(cosleft(xright)+e^xright)+2e^x}right)=2ne 0$$Also the limit doesn't exist since it is $Large{2over pm 0}$ .






                            share|cite|improve this answer









                            $endgroup$



                            You can't use L^Hopital's rule since $$lim _{xto 0}left({2sin xleft(xright)+xleft(cosleft(xright)+e^xright)+2e^x}right)=2ne 0$$Also the limit doesn't exist since it is $Large{2over pm 0}$ .







                            share|cite|improve this answer












                            share|cite|improve this answer



                            share|cite|improve this answer










                            answered Jan 12 at 20:00









                            Mostafa AyazMostafa Ayaz

                            15.6k3939




                            15.6k3939






























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