What is an example of an Eilenberg-MacLane space that is not homotopy equivalent to a CW complex?












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The proofs that any two CW complexes that are K(G,n) are homotopy equivalent has no obvious extension to the general case. I assume it is known to be false in general, but I can't find an example.










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    The proofs that any two CW complexes that are K(G,n) are homotopy equivalent has no obvious extension to the general case. I assume it is known to be false in general, but I can't find an example.










    share|cite|improve this question









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      1





      $begingroup$


      The proofs that any two CW complexes that are K(G,n) are homotopy equivalent has no obvious extension to the general case. I assume it is known to be false in general, but I can't find an example.










      share|cite|improve this question









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      The proofs that any two CW complexes that are K(G,n) are homotopy equivalent has no obvious extension to the general case. I assume it is known to be false in general, but I can't find an example.







      algebraic-topology






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      asked Jan 12 at 21:50









      Connor MalinConnor Malin

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          3 Answers
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          The Hawaiian earring (which is a a compact path connected and locally path connected subset of the plane) is a $K(G,1)$. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hawaiian_earring, https://mathoverflow.net/questions/163847/are-the-higher-homotopy-groups-of-the-hawaiian-earring-trivial. Its fundamental group $G$ is uncountable.



          Another example is the Warsaw circle. It is $K(0,n)$ for all $n$. See How to show Warsaw circle is non-contractible? and Connor Malin's answer.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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            $begingroup$

            For a nice example consider the pseudocircle (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudocircle). This is a finite topological space which is weakly equivalent to the circle $S^1$. It follows that the psuedocircle is a $K(mathbb{Z},1)$. However, any finite CW complex must be discrete, so it obviously cannot be CW.






            share|cite|improve this answer









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            • $begingroup$
              As far as I can tell this doesn't anything about the homotopy type, but it is an easy extension of what you say, as any map from the pseudocircle to a Hausdorff space is constant.
              $endgroup$
              – Mike Miller
              Jan 13 at 15:39










            • $begingroup$
              @MikeMiller, the Pseudocircle $X$ has the weak homotopy type of $S^1simeq K(mathbb{Z},1)$. For the reason you state it clearly cannot by homotopy equivalent to $S^1$, and cannot even admit a weak equivalence in the direction $Xrightarrow S^1$.
              $endgroup$
              – Tyrone
              Jan 13 at 17:29








            • 1




              $begingroup$
              Yes, I understand :) I was commenting only because the OP asked for something not homotopy equivalent to a CW complex, and your last sentence is up to homeomorphism. It is a good answer.
              $endgroup$
              – Mike Miller
              Jan 13 at 17:32












            • $begingroup$
              @MikeMiller, thanks for pointing that out, I do agree that my statement is a bit ambiguous. I actually meant that if $Y$ is finite and discrete then necessarily $pi_0Y=|Y|$ and $pi_1Y=0$, so since $pi_1Xcongmathbb{Z}$ it cannot be discrete, and hence cannot be CW. I barely even remember what a homeomorphish is anymore ;).
              $endgroup$
              – Tyrone
              Jan 13 at 17:42



















            1












            $begingroup$

            I think something like this might work: take a noncontractible space that has all homotopy groups zero (such a thing is necessarily not a CW complex, I think an example can be obtained from wedging two comb spaces) and wedge it with K(G,n). The resulting space should not be homotopy equivalent to a CW complex and (perhaps depending on the noncontractible space) be a K(G,n).






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              Or just taking G = 0 and a non-contractible space which is weakly contractible gives a counterexample!
              $endgroup$
              – Mike Miller
              Jan 12 at 22:43













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            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

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            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

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            active

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            3












            $begingroup$

            The Hawaiian earring (which is a a compact path connected and locally path connected subset of the plane) is a $K(G,1)$. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hawaiian_earring, https://mathoverflow.net/questions/163847/are-the-higher-homotopy-groups-of-the-hawaiian-earring-trivial. Its fundamental group $G$ is uncountable.



            Another example is the Warsaw circle. It is $K(0,n)$ for all $n$. See How to show Warsaw circle is non-contractible? and Connor Malin's answer.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$


















              3












              $begingroup$

              The Hawaiian earring (which is a a compact path connected and locally path connected subset of the plane) is a $K(G,1)$. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hawaiian_earring, https://mathoverflow.net/questions/163847/are-the-higher-homotopy-groups-of-the-hawaiian-earring-trivial. Its fundamental group $G$ is uncountable.



              Another example is the Warsaw circle. It is $K(0,n)$ for all $n$. See How to show Warsaw circle is non-contractible? and Connor Malin's answer.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                3












                3








                3





                $begingroup$

                The Hawaiian earring (which is a a compact path connected and locally path connected subset of the plane) is a $K(G,1)$. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hawaiian_earring, https://mathoverflow.net/questions/163847/are-the-higher-homotopy-groups-of-the-hawaiian-earring-trivial. Its fundamental group $G$ is uncountable.



                Another example is the Warsaw circle. It is $K(0,n)$ for all $n$. See How to show Warsaw circle is non-contractible? and Connor Malin's answer.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                The Hawaiian earring (which is a a compact path connected and locally path connected subset of the plane) is a $K(G,1)$. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hawaiian_earring, https://mathoverflow.net/questions/163847/are-the-higher-homotopy-groups-of-the-hawaiian-earring-trivial. Its fundamental group $G$ is uncountable.



                Another example is the Warsaw circle. It is $K(0,n)$ for all $n$. See How to show Warsaw circle is non-contractible? and Connor Malin's answer.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Jan 13 at 12:33









                Paul FrostPaul Frost

                10.7k3933




                10.7k3933























                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    For a nice example consider the pseudocircle (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudocircle). This is a finite topological space which is weakly equivalent to the circle $S^1$. It follows that the psuedocircle is a $K(mathbb{Z},1)$. However, any finite CW complex must be discrete, so it obviously cannot be CW.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      As far as I can tell this doesn't anything about the homotopy type, but it is an easy extension of what you say, as any map from the pseudocircle to a Hausdorff space is constant.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mike Miller
                      Jan 13 at 15:39










                    • $begingroup$
                      @MikeMiller, the Pseudocircle $X$ has the weak homotopy type of $S^1simeq K(mathbb{Z},1)$. For the reason you state it clearly cannot by homotopy equivalent to $S^1$, and cannot even admit a weak equivalence in the direction $Xrightarrow S^1$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Tyrone
                      Jan 13 at 17:29








                    • 1




                      $begingroup$
                      Yes, I understand :) I was commenting only because the OP asked for something not homotopy equivalent to a CW complex, and your last sentence is up to homeomorphism. It is a good answer.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mike Miller
                      Jan 13 at 17:32












                    • $begingroup$
                      @MikeMiller, thanks for pointing that out, I do agree that my statement is a bit ambiguous. I actually meant that if $Y$ is finite and discrete then necessarily $pi_0Y=|Y|$ and $pi_1Y=0$, so since $pi_1Xcongmathbb{Z}$ it cannot be discrete, and hence cannot be CW. I barely even remember what a homeomorphish is anymore ;).
                      $endgroup$
                      – Tyrone
                      Jan 13 at 17:42
















                    2












                    $begingroup$

                    For a nice example consider the pseudocircle (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudocircle). This is a finite topological space which is weakly equivalent to the circle $S^1$. It follows that the psuedocircle is a $K(mathbb{Z},1)$. However, any finite CW complex must be discrete, so it obviously cannot be CW.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$













                    • $begingroup$
                      As far as I can tell this doesn't anything about the homotopy type, but it is an easy extension of what you say, as any map from the pseudocircle to a Hausdorff space is constant.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mike Miller
                      Jan 13 at 15:39










                    • $begingroup$
                      @MikeMiller, the Pseudocircle $X$ has the weak homotopy type of $S^1simeq K(mathbb{Z},1)$. For the reason you state it clearly cannot by homotopy equivalent to $S^1$, and cannot even admit a weak equivalence in the direction $Xrightarrow S^1$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Tyrone
                      Jan 13 at 17:29








                    • 1




                      $begingroup$
                      Yes, I understand :) I was commenting only because the OP asked for something not homotopy equivalent to a CW complex, and your last sentence is up to homeomorphism. It is a good answer.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mike Miller
                      Jan 13 at 17:32












                    • $begingroup$
                      @MikeMiller, thanks for pointing that out, I do agree that my statement is a bit ambiguous. I actually meant that if $Y$ is finite and discrete then necessarily $pi_0Y=|Y|$ and $pi_1Y=0$, so since $pi_1Xcongmathbb{Z}$ it cannot be discrete, and hence cannot be CW. I barely even remember what a homeomorphish is anymore ;).
                      $endgroup$
                      – Tyrone
                      Jan 13 at 17:42














                    2












                    2








                    2





                    $begingroup$

                    For a nice example consider the pseudocircle (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudocircle). This is a finite topological space which is weakly equivalent to the circle $S^1$. It follows that the psuedocircle is a $K(mathbb{Z},1)$. However, any finite CW complex must be discrete, so it obviously cannot be CW.






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    For a nice example consider the pseudocircle (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pseudocircle). This is a finite topological space which is weakly equivalent to the circle $S^1$. It follows that the psuedocircle is a $K(mathbb{Z},1)$. However, any finite CW complex must be discrete, so it obviously cannot be CW.







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Jan 13 at 11:41









                    TyroneTyrone

                    4,65511225




                    4,65511225












                    • $begingroup$
                      As far as I can tell this doesn't anything about the homotopy type, but it is an easy extension of what you say, as any map from the pseudocircle to a Hausdorff space is constant.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mike Miller
                      Jan 13 at 15:39










                    • $begingroup$
                      @MikeMiller, the Pseudocircle $X$ has the weak homotopy type of $S^1simeq K(mathbb{Z},1)$. For the reason you state it clearly cannot by homotopy equivalent to $S^1$, and cannot even admit a weak equivalence in the direction $Xrightarrow S^1$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Tyrone
                      Jan 13 at 17:29








                    • 1




                      $begingroup$
                      Yes, I understand :) I was commenting only because the OP asked for something not homotopy equivalent to a CW complex, and your last sentence is up to homeomorphism. It is a good answer.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mike Miller
                      Jan 13 at 17:32












                    • $begingroup$
                      @MikeMiller, thanks for pointing that out, I do agree that my statement is a bit ambiguous. I actually meant that if $Y$ is finite and discrete then necessarily $pi_0Y=|Y|$ and $pi_1Y=0$, so since $pi_1Xcongmathbb{Z}$ it cannot be discrete, and hence cannot be CW. I barely even remember what a homeomorphish is anymore ;).
                      $endgroup$
                      – Tyrone
                      Jan 13 at 17:42


















                    • $begingroup$
                      As far as I can tell this doesn't anything about the homotopy type, but it is an easy extension of what you say, as any map from the pseudocircle to a Hausdorff space is constant.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mike Miller
                      Jan 13 at 15:39










                    • $begingroup$
                      @MikeMiller, the Pseudocircle $X$ has the weak homotopy type of $S^1simeq K(mathbb{Z},1)$. For the reason you state it clearly cannot by homotopy equivalent to $S^1$, and cannot even admit a weak equivalence in the direction $Xrightarrow S^1$.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Tyrone
                      Jan 13 at 17:29








                    • 1




                      $begingroup$
                      Yes, I understand :) I was commenting only because the OP asked for something not homotopy equivalent to a CW complex, and your last sentence is up to homeomorphism. It is a good answer.
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mike Miller
                      Jan 13 at 17:32












                    • $begingroup$
                      @MikeMiller, thanks for pointing that out, I do agree that my statement is a bit ambiguous. I actually meant that if $Y$ is finite and discrete then necessarily $pi_0Y=|Y|$ and $pi_1Y=0$, so since $pi_1Xcongmathbb{Z}$ it cannot be discrete, and hence cannot be CW. I barely even remember what a homeomorphish is anymore ;).
                      $endgroup$
                      – Tyrone
                      Jan 13 at 17:42
















                    $begingroup$
                    As far as I can tell this doesn't anything about the homotopy type, but it is an easy extension of what you say, as any map from the pseudocircle to a Hausdorff space is constant.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Mike Miller
                    Jan 13 at 15:39




                    $begingroup$
                    As far as I can tell this doesn't anything about the homotopy type, but it is an easy extension of what you say, as any map from the pseudocircle to a Hausdorff space is constant.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Mike Miller
                    Jan 13 at 15:39












                    $begingroup$
                    @MikeMiller, the Pseudocircle $X$ has the weak homotopy type of $S^1simeq K(mathbb{Z},1)$. For the reason you state it clearly cannot by homotopy equivalent to $S^1$, and cannot even admit a weak equivalence in the direction $Xrightarrow S^1$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Tyrone
                    Jan 13 at 17:29






                    $begingroup$
                    @MikeMiller, the Pseudocircle $X$ has the weak homotopy type of $S^1simeq K(mathbb{Z},1)$. For the reason you state it clearly cannot by homotopy equivalent to $S^1$, and cannot even admit a weak equivalence in the direction $Xrightarrow S^1$.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Tyrone
                    Jan 13 at 17:29






                    1




                    1




                    $begingroup$
                    Yes, I understand :) I was commenting only because the OP asked for something not homotopy equivalent to a CW complex, and your last sentence is up to homeomorphism. It is a good answer.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Mike Miller
                    Jan 13 at 17:32






                    $begingroup$
                    Yes, I understand :) I was commenting only because the OP asked for something not homotopy equivalent to a CW complex, and your last sentence is up to homeomorphism. It is a good answer.
                    $endgroup$
                    – Mike Miller
                    Jan 13 at 17:32














                    $begingroup$
                    @MikeMiller, thanks for pointing that out, I do agree that my statement is a bit ambiguous. I actually meant that if $Y$ is finite and discrete then necessarily $pi_0Y=|Y|$ and $pi_1Y=0$, so since $pi_1Xcongmathbb{Z}$ it cannot be discrete, and hence cannot be CW. I barely even remember what a homeomorphish is anymore ;).
                    $endgroup$
                    – Tyrone
                    Jan 13 at 17:42




                    $begingroup$
                    @MikeMiller, thanks for pointing that out, I do agree that my statement is a bit ambiguous. I actually meant that if $Y$ is finite and discrete then necessarily $pi_0Y=|Y|$ and $pi_1Y=0$, so since $pi_1Xcongmathbb{Z}$ it cannot be discrete, and hence cannot be CW. I barely even remember what a homeomorphish is anymore ;).
                    $endgroup$
                    – Tyrone
                    Jan 13 at 17:42











                    1












                    $begingroup$

                    I think something like this might work: take a noncontractible space that has all homotopy groups zero (such a thing is necessarily not a CW complex, I think an example can be obtained from wedging two comb spaces) and wedge it with K(G,n). The resulting space should not be homotopy equivalent to a CW complex and (perhaps depending on the noncontractible space) be a K(G,n).






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$









                    • 2




                      $begingroup$
                      Or just taking G = 0 and a non-contractible space which is weakly contractible gives a counterexample!
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mike Miller
                      Jan 12 at 22:43


















                    1












                    $begingroup$

                    I think something like this might work: take a noncontractible space that has all homotopy groups zero (such a thing is necessarily not a CW complex, I think an example can be obtained from wedging two comb spaces) and wedge it with K(G,n). The resulting space should not be homotopy equivalent to a CW complex and (perhaps depending on the noncontractible space) be a K(G,n).






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$









                    • 2




                      $begingroup$
                      Or just taking G = 0 and a non-contractible space which is weakly contractible gives a counterexample!
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mike Miller
                      Jan 12 at 22:43
















                    1












                    1








                    1





                    $begingroup$

                    I think something like this might work: take a noncontractible space that has all homotopy groups zero (such a thing is necessarily not a CW complex, I think an example can be obtained from wedging two comb spaces) and wedge it with K(G,n). The resulting space should not be homotopy equivalent to a CW complex and (perhaps depending on the noncontractible space) be a K(G,n).






                    share|cite|improve this answer









                    $endgroup$



                    I think something like this might work: take a noncontractible space that has all homotopy groups zero (such a thing is necessarily not a CW complex, I think an example can be obtained from wedging two comb spaces) and wedge it with K(G,n). The resulting space should not be homotopy equivalent to a CW complex and (perhaps depending on the noncontractible space) be a K(G,n).







                    share|cite|improve this answer












                    share|cite|improve this answer



                    share|cite|improve this answer










                    answered Jan 12 at 22:39









                    Connor MalinConnor Malin

                    758




                    758








                    • 2




                      $begingroup$
                      Or just taking G = 0 and a non-contractible space which is weakly contractible gives a counterexample!
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mike Miller
                      Jan 12 at 22:43
















                    • 2




                      $begingroup$
                      Or just taking G = 0 and a non-contractible space which is weakly contractible gives a counterexample!
                      $endgroup$
                      – Mike Miller
                      Jan 12 at 22:43










                    2




                    2




                    $begingroup$
                    Or just taking G = 0 and a non-contractible space which is weakly contractible gives a counterexample!
                    $endgroup$
                    – Mike Miller
                    Jan 12 at 22:43






                    $begingroup$
                    Or just taking G = 0 and a non-contractible space which is weakly contractible gives a counterexample!
                    $endgroup$
                    – Mike Miller
                    Jan 12 at 22:43




















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