Can we prove that a point is either in the interior, exterior or boundary of a set?












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$begingroup$


So, I am reading Michael Spivak’s book Calculus on Manifolds and when he starts speaking of sets, he states something like this:



If we take an arbitrary set $A$ and an arbitrary point $x$, then either one of three has to be true:




  • There exists an open set $B$ such that $xin Bsubset A$

  • There exists an open set $B$ such that $xin B subset overline A$

  • For all open sets $B$ such that $xin B$, $B$ contains elements of $A$ and $overline A$


My question is: Can we prove this?



Thank you in advance.










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    0












    $begingroup$


    So, I am reading Michael Spivak’s book Calculus on Manifolds and when he starts speaking of sets, he states something like this:



    If we take an arbitrary set $A$ and an arbitrary point $x$, then either one of three has to be true:




    • There exists an open set $B$ such that $xin Bsubset A$

    • There exists an open set $B$ such that $xin B subset overline A$

    • For all open sets $B$ such that $xin B$, $B$ contains elements of $A$ and $overline A$


    My question is: Can we prove this?



    Thank you in advance.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      So, I am reading Michael Spivak’s book Calculus on Manifolds and when he starts speaking of sets, he states something like this:



      If we take an arbitrary set $A$ and an arbitrary point $x$, then either one of three has to be true:




      • There exists an open set $B$ such that $xin Bsubset A$

      • There exists an open set $B$ such that $xin B subset overline A$

      • For all open sets $B$ such that $xin B$, $B$ contains elements of $A$ and $overline A$


      My question is: Can we prove this?



      Thank you in advance.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      So, I am reading Michael Spivak’s book Calculus on Manifolds and when he starts speaking of sets, he states something like this:



      If we take an arbitrary set $A$ and an arbitrary point $x$, then either one of three has to be true:




      • There exists an open set $B$ such that $xin Bsubset A$

      • There exists an open set $B$ such that $xin B subset overline A$

      • For all open sets $B$ such that $xin B$, $B$ contains elements of $A$ and $overline A$


      My question is: Can we prove this?



      Thank you in advance.







      real-analysis elementary-set-theory






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      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 26 at 13:07









      DaàvidDaàvid

      505




      505






















          1 Answer
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          0












          $begingroup$

          Call the three conditions a, b, c.



          For any set $A$, either c holds, and we're done, or c does not hold.



          In the latter case (c does not hold), there's some open set $B$ containing $x$ that either contains only elements of $A$ (which is "a") or contains only elements of $bar{A}$ (which is case "b").






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the answer. But how do we even know that there are points satisfying c?
            $endgroup$
            – Daàvid
            Jan 26 at 13:20












          • $begingroup$
            We don't know that, and Spivak doesn't claim that, which is a good thing, because it's false. If, for instance, we're working in $Bbb R$, and $A = Bbb R$, then there are no points satisfying either b or c, but the statement that every point satisfies exactly one of the three is still true: they all satisfy the first one!
            $endgroup$
            – John Hughes
            Jan 26 at 13:22










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm ok, I got it. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Daàvid
            Jan 26 at 14:18











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
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          active

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          active

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          active

          oldest

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          0












          $begingroup$

          Call the three conditions a, b, c.



          For any set $A$, either c holds, and we're done, or c does not hold.



          In the latter case (c does not hold), there's some open set $B$ containing $x$ that either contains only elements of $A$ (which is "a") or contains only elements of $bar{A}$ (which is case "b").






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the answer. But how do we even know that there are points satisfying c?
            $endgroup$
            – Daàvid
            Jan 26 at 13:20












          • $begingroup$
            We don't know that, and Spivak doesn't claim that, which is a good thing, because it's false. If, for instance, we're working in $Bbb R$, and $A = Bbb R$, then there are no points satisfying either b or c, but the statement that every point satisfies exactly one of the three is still true: they all satisfy the first one!
            $endgroup$
            – John Hughes
            Jan 26 at 13:22










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm ok, I got it. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Daàvid
            Jan 26 at 14:18
















          0












          $begingroup$

          Call the three conditions a, b, c.



          For any set $A$, either c holds, and we're done, or c does not hold.



          In the latter case (c does not hold), there's some open set $B$ containing $x$ that either contains only elements of $A$ (which is "a") or contains only elements of $bar{A}$ (which is case "b").






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the answer. But how do we even know that there are points satisfying c?
            $endgroup$
            – Daàvid
            Jan 26 at 13:20












          • $begingroup$
            We don't know that, and Spivak doesn't claim that, which is a good thing, because it's false. If, for instance, we're working in $Bbb R$, and $A = Bbb R$, then there are no points satisfying either b or c, but the statement that every point satisfies exactly one of the three is still true: they all satisfy the first one!
            $endgroup$
            – John Hughes
            Jan 26 at 13:22










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm ok, I got it. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Daàvid
            Jan 26 at 14:18














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Call the three conditions a, b, c.



          For any set $A$, either c holds, and we're done, or c does not hold.



          In the latter case (c does not hold), there's some open set $B$ containing $x$ that either contains only elements of $A$ (which is "a") or contains only elements of $bar{A}$ (which is case "b").






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Call the three conditions a, b, c.



          For any set $A$, either c holds, and we're done, or c does not hold.



          In the latter case (c does not hold), there's some open set $B$ containing $x$ that either contains only elements of $A$ (which is "a") or contains only elements of $bar{A}$ (which is case "b").







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 26 at 13:14









          John HughesJohn Hughes

          64.8k24191




          64.8k24191












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the answer. But how do we even know that there are points satisfying c?
            $endgroup$
            – Daàvid
            Jan 26 at 13:20












          • $begingroup$
            We don't know that, and Spivak doesn't claim that, which is a good thing, because it's false. If, for instance, we're working in $Bbb R$, and $A = Bbb R$, then there are no points satisfying either b or c, but the statement that every point satisfies exactly one of the three is still true: they all satisfy the first one!
            $endgroup$
            – John Hughes
            Jan 26 at 13:22










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm ok, I got it. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Daàvid
            Jan 26 at 14:18


















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the answer. But how do we even know that there are points satisfying c?
            $endgroup$
            – Daàvid
            Jan 26 at 13:20












          • $begingroup$
            We don't know that, and Spivak doesn't claim that, which is a good thing, because it's false. If, for instance, we're working in $Bbb R$, and $A = Bbb R$, then there are no points satisfying either b or c, but the statement that every point satisfies exactly one of the three is still true: they all satisfy the first one!
            $endgroup$
            – John Hughes
            Jan 26 at 13:22










          • $begingroup$
            Hmm ok, I got it. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Daàvid
            Jan 26 at 14:18
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you for the answer. But how do we even know that there are points satisfying c?
          $endgroup$
          – Daàvid
          Jan 26 at 13:20






          $begingroup$
          Thank you for the answer. But how do we even know that there are points satisfying c?
          $endgroup$
          – Daàvid
          Jan 26 at 13:20














          $begingroup$
          We don't know that, and Spivak doesn't claim that, which is a good thing, because it's false. If, for instance, we're working in $Bbb R$, and $A = Bbb R$, then there are no points satisfying either b or c, but the statement that every point satisfies exactly one of the three is still true: they all satisfy the first one!
          $endgroup$
          – John Hughes
          Jan 26 at 13:22




          $begingroup$
          We don't know that, and Spivak doesn't claim that, which is a good thing, because it's false. If, for instance, we're working in $Bbb R$, and $A = Bbb R$, then there are no points satisfying either b or c, but the statement that every point satisfies exactly one of the three is still true: they all satisfy the first one!
          $endgroup$
          – John Hughes
          Jan 26 at 13:22












          $begingroup$
          Hmm ok, I got it. Thank you
          $endgroup$
          – Daàvid
          Jan 26 at 14:18




          $begingroup$
          Hmm ok, I got it. Thank you
          $endgroup$
          – Daàvid
          Jan 26 at 14:18


















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