Is it possible to calculate the logical expression A ^ B v C?












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In my theory notes, logical AND $land$ and logical OR $lor$ are equivalent in precedence. So then is the expression $A land B lor C$ valid, i.e. can I compute it, without parenthesis?










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  • $begingroup$
    The two ways of parsing it are certainly not equivalent. You should note that a more common convention is that it's $(Aland B)lor C$.
    $endgroup$
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jan 26 at 17:45










  • $begingroup$
    In our situation its explicitly not the convention.
    $endgroup$
    – TMOTTM
    Jan 30 at 10:48
















0












$begingroup$


In my theory notes, logical AND $land$ and logical OR $lor$ are equivalent in precedence. So then is the expression $A land B lor C$ valid, i.e. can I compute it, without parenthesis?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    The two ways of parsing it are certainly not equivalent. You should note that a more common convention is that it's $(Aland B)lor C$.
    $endgroup$
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jan 26 at 17:45










  • $begingroup$
    In our situation its explicitly not the convention.
    $endgroup$
    – TMOTTM
    Jan 30 at 10:48














0












0








0





$begingroup$


In my theory notes, logical AND $land$ and logical OR $lor$ are equivalent in precedence. So then is the expression $A land B lor C$ valid, i.e. can I compute it, without parenthesis?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




In my theory notes, logical AND $land$ and logical OR $lor$ are equivalent in precedence. So then is the expression $A land B lor C$ valid, i.e. can I compute it, without parenthesis?







logic






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edited Jan 26 at 16:22









Mauro ALLEGRANZA

67.4k449115




67.4k449115










asked Jan 26 at 16:07









TMOTTMTMOTTM

1254




1254












  • $begingroup$
    The two ways of parsing it are certainly not equivalent. You should note that a more common convention is that it's $(Aland B)lor C$.
    $endgroup$
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jan 26 at 17:45










  • $begingroup$
    In our situation its explicitly not the convention.
    $endgroup$
    – TMOTTM
    Jan 30 at 10:48


















  • $begingroup$
    The two ways of parsing it are certainly not equivalent. You should note that a more common convention is that it's $(Aland B)lor C$.
    $endgroup$
    – David C. Ullrich
    Jan 26 at 17:45










  • $begingroup$
    In our situation its explicitly not the convention.
    $endgroup$
    – TMOTTM
    Jan 30 at 10:48
















$begingroup$
The two ways of parsing it are certainly not equivalent. You should note that a more common convention is that it's $(Aland B)lor C$.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 26 at 17:45




$begingroup$
The two ways of parsing it are certainly not equivalent. You should note that a more common convention is that it's $(Aland B)lor C$.
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 26 at 17:45












$begingroup$
In our situation its explicitly not the convention.
$endgroup$
– TMOTTM
Jan 30 at 10:48




$begingroup$
In our situation its explicitly not the convention.
$endgroup$
– TMOTTM
Jan 30 at 10:48










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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1












$begingroup$

No, its not. Consider $A$ false and $B,C$ true. Then $fwedge (tvee t) = f$ and $(fwedge t)vee t = t$.






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$endgroup$





















    0












    $begingroup$

    No, without parentheses or a convention about which connective is the stronger connective, the expression is ambiguous, since $(A wedge B) vee C$ and $A wedge (B vee C)$ are not equivalent.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      As I was thinking. In fact our convention is that they are of same connectivity.
      $endgroup$
      – TMOTTM
      Jan 26 at 16:10










    • $begingroup$
      Right, there convention is that they are equally strong: proofwiki.org/wiki/Definition:Binding_Priority.
      $endgroup$
      – kccu
      Jan 26 at 16:14











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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    active

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    active

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    1












    $begingroup$

    No, its not. Consider $A$ false and $B,C$ true. Then $fwedge (tvee t) = f$ and $(fwedge t)vee t = t$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      No, its not. Consider $A$ false and $B,C$ true. Then $fwedge (tvee t) = f$ and $(fwedge t)vee t = t$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        No, its not. Consider $A$ false and $B,C$ true. Then $fwedge (tvee t) = f$ and $(fwedge t)vee t = t$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        No, its not. Consider $A$ false and $B,C$ true. Then $fwedge (tvee t) = f$ and $(fwedge t)vee t = t$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 26 at 16:11









        WuestenfuxWuestenfux

        5,2931513




        5,2931513























            0












            $begingroup$

            No, without parentheses or a convention about which connective is the stronger connective, the expression is ambiguous, since $(A wedge B) vee C$ and $A wedge (B vee C)$ are not equivalent.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              As I was thinking. In fact our convention is that they are of same connectivity.
              $endgroup$
              – TMOTTM
              Jan 26 at 16:10










            • $begingroup$
              Right, there convention is that they are equally strong: proofwiki.org/wiki/Definition:Binding_Priority.
              $endgroup$
              – kccu
              Jan 26 at 16:14
















            0












            $begingroup$

            No, without parentheses or a convention about which connective is the stronger connective, the expression is ambiguous, since $(A wedge B) vee C$ and $A wedge (B vee C)$ are not equivalent.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              As I was thinking. In fact our convention is that they are of same connectivity.
              $endgroup$
              – TMOTTM
              Jan 26 at 16:10










            • $begingroup$
              Right, there convention is that they are equally strong: proofwiki.org/wiki/Definition:Binding_Priority.
              $endgroup$
              – kccu
              Jan 26 at 16:14














            0












            0








            0





            $begingroup$

            No, without parentheses or a convention about which connective is the stronger connective, the expression is ambiguous, since $(A wedge B) vee C$ and $A wedge (B vee C)$ are not equivalent.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            No, without parentheses or a convention about which connective is the stronger connective, the expression is ambiguous, since $(A wedge B) vee C$ and $A wedge (B vee C)$ are not equivalent.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Jan 26 at 16:08









            kccukccu

            10.6k11229




            10.6k11229












            • $begingroup$
              As I was thinking. In fact our convention is that they are of same connectivity.
              $endgroup$
              – TMOTTM
              Jan 26 at 16:10










            • $begingroup$
              Right, there convention is that they are equally strong: proofwiki.org/wiki/Definition:Binding_Priority.
              $endgroup$
              – kccu
              Jan 26 at 16:14


















            • $begingroup$
              As I was thinking. In fact our convention is that they are of same connectivity.
              $endgroup$
              – TMOTTM
              Jan 26 at 16:10










            • $begingroup$
              Right, there convention is that they are equally strong: proofwiki.org/wiki/Definition:Binding_Priority.
              $endgroup$
              – kccu
              Jan 26 at 16:14
















            $begingroup$
            As I was thinking. In fact our convention is that they are of same connectivity.
            $endgroup$
            – TMOTTM
            Jan 26 at 16:10




            $begingroup$
            As I was thinking. In fact our convention is that they are of same connectivity.
            $endgroup$
            – TMOTTM
            Jan 26 at 16:10












            $begingroup$
            Right, there convention is that they are equally strong: proofwiki.org/wiki/Definition:Binding_Priority.
            $endgroup$
            – kccu
            Jan 26 at 16:14




            $begingroup$
            Right, there convention is that they are equally strong: proofwiki.org/wiki/Definition:Binding_Priority.
            $endgroup$
            – kccu
            Jan 26 at 16:14


















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