If the right derivative is positive at each point, can I conclude that $f$ is increasing at right of each...
$begingroup$
Let $f:mathbb Rto mathbb R$ a derivable function at right of each point, i.e. $$lim_{hto 0^+}frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}=f_d'(x)$$
exist for all $x$. We suppose that $f_d'(x)geq 0$ for all $x$. Can we conclude that $f$ is increasing at right of each point ? i.e for all $x$, there is $delta =delta_x $ s.t. $f(x)leq f(y)$ for all $yin [x, x+delta ]$ ?
I tried as follow :
$$f(x+h)=f(x)+f'_d(x)h+hvarepsilon (h)$$
for $h>0$ where $varepsilon (h)to 0$ when $hto 0^+$. In particular, $$f(x+h)geq f(x)+hvarepsilon (h).$$
Now, I don't see why this would prove the statement since $varepsilon (h)$ could be negative. Any idea ?
real-analysis
$endgroup$
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
Let $f:mathbb Rto mathbb R$ a derivable function at right of each point, i.e. $$lim_{hto 0^+}frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}=f_d'(x)$$
exist for all $x$. We suppose that $f_d'(x)geq 0$ for all $x$. Can we conclude that $f$ is increasing at right of each point ? i.e for all $x$, there is $delta =delta_x $ s.t. $f(x)leq f(y)$ for all $yin [x, x+delta ]$ ?
I tried as follow :
$$f(x+h)=f(x)+f'_d(x)h+hvarepsilon (h)$$
for $h>0$ where $varepsilon (h)to 0$ when $hto 0^+$. In particular, $$f(x+h)geq f(x)+hvarepsilon (h).$$
Now, I don't see why this would prove the statement since $varepsilon (h)$ could be negative. Any idea ?
real-analysis
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Your approach doesn't. You've taken too loose an approximation. Instead, bound $|varepsilon(h)|$ by $f'_d(x)h$, and you have $f(x+h) = f(x)+f'_d(x)h + varepsilon(h) geq f(x) + f'_d(x)h - |varepsilon(h)| geq f(x) + f'_d(x)h - f'_d(x)h = f(x)$.
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 26 at 17:53
$begingroup$
@user3482749: Thank you but why $|varepsilon (h)|leq f'(x)h$ ?
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 26 at 17:56
$begingroup$
It's more : take $delta _x$ s.t. $|varepsilon (h)|leq f'_d(x)$ when $|h|leq delta _x$. This is possible since $varepsilon (h)to 0$
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jan 26 at 18:04
$begingroup$
@user3482749, I was curious about the question and read your comment. I didnt' get exactly your steps. My doubt is that you apparently (but I may be wrong) did not use the hypothesis that $f'_d(x)$ is non negative everywhere. This is definitely necessary for the statement to hold, If $f'_d(x)$ is non negative only at, say, $x_0$ then no conclusion can be drawn on the behavior of $f(x)$ in a neighborhood of $x_0$. Am I right?
$endgroup$
– Matteo
Jan 26 at 20:39
$begingroup$
It's not "derivable". It's "differentiable".
$endgroup$
– MathematicsStudent1122
Feb 2 at 17:24
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
Let $f:mathbb Rto mathbb R$ a derivable function at right of each point, i.e. $$lim_{hto 0^+}frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}=f_d'(x)$$
exist for all $x$. We suppose that $f_d'(x)geq 0$ for all $x$. Can we conclude that $f$ is increasing at right of each point ? i.e for all $x$, there is $delta =delta_x $ s.t. $f(x)leq f(y)$ for all $yin [x, x+delta ]$ ?
I tried as follow :
$$f(x+h)=f(x)+f'_d(x)h+hvarepsilon (h)$$
for $h>0$ where $varepsilon (h)to 0$ when $hto 0^+$. In particular, $$f(x+h)geq f(x)+hvarepsilon (h).$$
Now, I don't see why this would prove the statement since $varepsilon (h)$ could be negative. Any idea ?
real-analysis
$endgroup$
Let $f:mathbb Rto mathbb R$ a derivable function at right of each point, i.e. $$lim_{hto 0^+}frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}=f_d'(x)$$
exist for all $x$. We suppose that $f_d'(x)geq 0$ for all $x$. Can we conclude that $f$ is increasing at right of each point ? i.e for all $x$, there is $delta =delta_x $ s.t. $f(x)leq f(y)$ for all $yin [x, x+delta ]$ ?
I tried as follow :
$$f(x+h)=f(x)+f'_d(x)h+hvarepsilon (h)$$
for $h>0$ where $varepsilon (h)to 0$ when $hto 0^+$. In particular, $$f(x+h)geq f(x)+hvarepsilon (h).$$
Now, I don't see why this would prove the statement since $varepsilon (h)$ could be negative. Any idea ?
real-analysis
real-analysis
edited Jan 26 at 17:56
Dylan
asked Jan 26 at 17:40
DylanDylan
3118
3118
$begingroup$
Your approach doesn't. You've taken too loose an approximation. Instead, bound $|varepsilon(h)|$ by $f'_d(x)h$, and you have $f(x+h) = f(x)+f'_d(x)h + varepsilon(h) geq f(x) + f'_d(x)h - |varepsilon(h)| geq f(x) + f'_d(x)h - f'_d(x)h = f(x)$.
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 26 at 17:53
$begingroup$
@user3482749: Thank you but why $|varepsilon (h)|leq f'(x)h$ ?
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 26 at 17:56
$begingroup$
It's more : take $delta _x$ s.t. $|varepsilon (h)|leq f'_d(x)$ when $|h|leq delta _x$. This is possible since $varepsilon (h)to 0$
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jan 26 at 18:04
$begingroup$
@user3482749, I was curious about the question and read your comment. I didnt' get exactly your steps. My doubt is that you apparently (but I may be wrong) did not use the hypothesis that $f'_d(x)$ is non negative everywhere. This is definitely necessary for the statement to hold, If $f'_d(x)$ is non negative only at, say, $x_0$ then no conclusion can be drawn on the behavior of $f(x)$ in a neighborhood of $x_0$. Am I right?
$endgroup$
– Matteo
Jan 26 at 20:39
$begingroup$
It's not "derivable". It's "differentiable".
$endgroup$
– MathematicsStudent1122
Feb 2 at 17:24
|
show 4 more comments
$begingroup$
Your approach doesn't. You've taken too loose an approximation. Instead, bound $|varepsilon(h)|$ by $f'_d(x)h$, and you have $f(x+h) = f(x)+f'_d(x)h + varepsilon(h) geq f(x) + f'_d(x)h - |varepsilon(h)| geq f(x) + f'_d(x)h - f'_d(x)h = f(x)$.
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 26 at 17:53
$begingroup$
@user3482749: Thank you but why $|varepsilon (h)|leq f'(x)h$ ?
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 26 at 17:56
$begingroup$
It's more : take $delta _x$ s.t. $|varepsilon (h)|leq f'_d(x)$ when $|h|leq delta _x$. This is possible since $varepsilon (h)to 0$
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jan 26 at 18:04
$begingroup$
@user3482749, I was curious about the question and read your comment. I didnt' get exactly your steps. My doubt is that you apparently (but I may be wrong) did not use the hypothesis that $f'_d(x)$ is non negative everywhere. This is definitely necessary for the statement to hold, If $f'_d(x)$ is non negative only at, say, $x_0$ then no conclusion can be drawn on the behavior of $f(x)$ in a neighborhood of $x_0$. Am I right?
$endgroup$
– Matteo
Jan 26 at 20:39
$begingroup$
It's not "derivable". It's "differentiable".
$endgroup$
– MathematicsStudent1122
Feb 2 at 17:24
$begingroup$
Your approach doesn't. You've taken too loose an approximation. Instead, bound $|varepsilon(h)|$ by $f'_d(x)h$, and you have $f(x+h) = f(x)+f'_d(x)h + varepsilon(h) geq f(x) + f'_d(x)h - |varepsilon(h)| geq f(x) + f'_d(x)h - f'_d(x)h = f(x)$.
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 26 at 17:53
$begingroup$
Your approach doesn't. You've taken too loose an approximation. Instead, bound $|varepsilon(h)|$ by $f'_d(x)h$, and you have $f(x+h) = f(x)+f'_d(x)h + varepsilon(h) geq f(x) + f'_d(x)h - |varepsilon(h)| geq f(x) + f'_d(x)h - f'_d(x)h = f(x)$.
$endgroup$
– user3482749
Jan 26 at 17:53
$begingroup$
@user3482749: Thank you but why $|varepsilon (h)|leq f'(x)h$ ?
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 26 at 17:56
$begingroup$
@user3482749: Thank you but why $|varepsilon (h)|leq f'(x)h$ ?
$endgroup$
– Dylan
Jan 26 at 17:56
$begingroup$
It's more : take $delta _x$ s.t. $|varepsilon (h)|leq f'_d(x)$ when $|h|leq delta _x$. This is possible since $varepsilon (h)to 0$
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jan 26 at 18:04
$begingroup$
It's more : take $delta _x$ s.t. $|varepsilon (h)|leq f'_d(x)$ when $|h|leq delta _x$. This is possible since $varepsilon (h)to 0$
$endgroup$
– Surb
Jan 26 at 18:04
$begingroup$
@user3482749, I was curious about the question and read your comment. I didnt' get exactly your steps. My doubt is that you apparently (but I may be wrong) did not use the hypothesis that $f'_d(x)$ is non negative everywhere. This is definitely necessary for the statement to hold, If $f'_d(x)$ is non negative only at, say, $x_0$ then no conclusion can be drawn on the behavior of $f(x)$ in a neighborhood of $x_0$. Am I right?
$endgroup$
– Matteo
Jan 26 at 20:39
$begingroup$
@user3482749, I was curious about the question and read your comment. I didnt' get exactly your steps. My doubt is that you apparently (but I may be wrong) did not use the hypothesis that $f'_d(x)$ is non negative everywhere. This is definitely necessary for the statement to hold, If $f'_d(x)$ is non negative only at, say, $x_0$ then no conclusion can be drawn on the behavior of $f(x)$ in a neighborhood of $x_0$. Am I right?
$endgroup$
– Matteo
Jan 26 at 20:39
$begingroup$
It's not "derivable". It's "differentiable".
$endgroup$
– MathematicsStudent1122
Feb 2 at 17:24
$begingroup$
It's not "derivable". It's "differentiable".
$endgroup$
– MathematicsStudent1122
Feb 2 at 17:24
|
show 4 more comments
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Here is a counterexample. Define
$$
f(x) = begin{cases}
0 & (x leq 0)\
-frac{1}{2^n} & left(frac{1}{sqrt{2^n}} leq x < frac{1}{sqrt{2^{n-1}}}; n > 1 right)\
-frac{1}{2} & left(xgeq frac{1}{sqrt 2}right)
end{cases}
$$
Clearly
$$f'_+(x) = lim_{hrightarrow 0^+}frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}=0$$
for all $x neq 0$.
To show that the right derivative in the origin is $0$, note that for $x>0$
$$ -x^2 leq f(x) leq 0,$$
so that
$$-x leq frac{f(x)}{x} leq 0.$$
Thus
$$f'_+(0) = lim_{hrightarrow 0^+} frac{f(h)}{h}=0,$$
by the squeezing rule.
Note, by the way, that $f(x)$ is continuous and differentiable in $0$.
In the Figure below you see a plot of the function. The green line corresponds to the function $y=-x^2$ and the red line to the function $y=-frac{1}{2}x^2$.
So $f(x)$ satisfies the requirements, i.e. $f'_+(x) geq 0$, for all $xin Bbb R$, but for any $delta > 0$, $xin (0,delta) Rightarrow f(x) < 0$.
In conclusion, if $f(x)$ is not continuous your statement is clearly false.
EDIT
Following the same approach you can even force the right derivative at each point (except $0$) to be strictly positive. Consider, e.g., the function in the Figure below, where red lines are graphs of $y=-x|x|$ and $y=-frac{1}{2}x|x|$. Then $f(x)$ is defined as follows.
$$f(x) = begin{cases}frac{sqrt{2^{-k}}-sqrt{2^{-k+1}}}{sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}}(x+sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}})- sqrt{2^{-k+1}} & left(-sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}leq x<-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}; kin Bbb Zright)\ 0 & (x=0)\ frac{sqrt{2^{-k}}-sqrt{2^{-k+1}}}{sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}}(x-sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}})+ sqrt{2^{-k+1}}& left(sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}leq x<sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}; kin Bbb Zright) .end{cases}$$
Again the squeezing rule guarantees continuity and differentiability in $0$, with $f'(0) = 0$.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Good counter example (+1).
$endgroup$
– Surb
Feb 2 at 20:10
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Here is a counterexample. Define
$$
f(x) = begin{cases}
0 & (x leq 0)\
-frac{1}{2^n} & left(frac{1}{sqrt{2^n}} leq x < frac{1}{sqrt{2^{n-1}}}; n > 1 right)\
-frac{1}{2} & left(xgeq frac{1}{sqrt 2}right)
end{cases}
$$
Clearly
$$f'_+(x) = lim_{hrightarrow 0^+}frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}=0$$
for all $x neq 0$.
To show that the right derivative in the origin is $0$, note that for $x>0$
$$ -x^2 leq f(x) leq 0,$$
so that
$$-x leq frac{f(x)}{x} leq 0.$$
Thus
$$f'_+(0) = lim_{hrightarrow 0^+} frac{f(h)}{h}=0,$$
by the squeezing rule.
Note, by the way, that $f(x)$ is continuous and differentiable in $0$.
In the Figure below you see a plot of the function. The green line corresponds to the function $y=-x^2$ and the red line to the function $y=-frac{1}{2}x^2$.
So $f(x)$ satisfies the requirements, i.e. $f'_+(x) geq 0$, for all $xin Bbb R$, but for any $delta > 0$, $xin (0,delta) Rightarrow f(x) < 0$.
In conclusion, if $f(x)$ is not continuous your statement is clearly false.
EDIT
Following the same approach you can even force the right derivative at each point (except $0$) to be strictly positive. Consider, e.g., the function in the Figure below, where red lines are graphs of $y=-x|x|$ and $y=-frac{1}{2}x|x|$. Then $f(x)$ is defined as follows.
$$f(x) = begin{cases}frac{sqrt{2^{-k}}-sqrt{2^{-k+1}}}{sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}}(x+sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}})- sqrt{2^{-k+1}} & left(-sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}leq x<-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}; kin Bbb Zright)\ 0 & (x=0)\ frac{sqrt{2^{-k}}-sqrt{2^{-k+1}}}{sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}}(x-sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}})+ sqrt{2^{-k+1}}& left(sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}leq x<sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}; kin Bbb Zright) .end{cases}$$
Again the squeezing rule guarantees continuity and differentiability in $0$, with $f'(0) = 0$.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Good counter example (+1).
$endgroup$
– Surb
Feb 2 at 20:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here is a counterexample. Define
$$
f(x) = begin{cases}
0 & (x leq 0)\
-frac{1}{2^n} & left(frac{1}{sqrt{2^n}} leq x < frac{1}{sqrt{2^{n-1}}}; n > 1 right)\
-frac{1}{2} & left(xgeq frac{1}{sqrt 2}right)
end{cases}
$$
Clearly
$$f'_+(x) = lim_{hrightarrow 0^+}frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}=0$$
for all $x neq 0$.
To show that the right derivative in the origin is $0$, note that for $x>0$
$$ -x^2 leq f(x) leq 0,$$
so that
$$-x leq frac{f(x)}{x} leq 0.$$
Thus
$$f'_+(0) = lim_{hrightarrow 0^+} frac{f(h)}{h}=0,$$
by the squeezing rule.
Note, by the way, that $f(x)$ is continuous and differentiable in $0$.
In the Figure below you see a plot of the function. The green line corresponds to the function $y=-x^2$ and the red line to the function $y=-frac{1}{2}x^2$.
So $f(x)$ satisfies the requirements, i.e. $f'_+(x) geq 0$, for all $xin Bbb R$, but for any $delta > 0$, $xin (0,delta) Rightarrow f(x) < 0$.
In conclusion, if $f(x)$ is not continuous your statement is clearly false.
EDIT
Following the same approach you can even force the right derivative at each point (except $0$) to be strictly positive. Consider, e.g., the function in the Figure below, where red lines are graphs of $y=-x|x|$ and $y=-frac{1}{2}x|x|$. Then $f(x)$ is defined as follows.
$$f(x) = begin{cases}frac{sqrt{2^{-k}}-sqrt{2^{-k+1}}}{sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}}(x+sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}})- sqrt{2^{-k+1}} & left(-sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}leq x<-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}; kin Bbb Zright)\ 0 & (x=0)\ frac{sqrt{2^{-k}}-sqrt{2^{-k+1}}}{sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}}(x-sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}})+ sqrt{2^{-k+1}}& left(sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}leq x<sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}; kin Bbb Zright) .end{cases}$$
Again the squeezing rule guarantees continuity and differentiability in $0$, with $f'(0) = 0$.
$endgroup$
2
$begingroup$
Good counter example (+1).
$endgroup$
– Surb
Feb 2 at 20:10
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Here is a counterexample. Define
$$
f(x) = begin{cases}
0 & (x leq 0)\
-frac{1}{2^n} & left(frac{1}{sqrt{2^n}} leq x < frac{1}{sqrt{2^{n-1}}}; n > 1 right)\
-frac{1}{2} & left(xgeq frac{1}{sqrt 2}right)
end{cases}
$$
Clearly
$$f'_+(x) = lim_{hrightarrow 0^+}frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}=0$$
for all $x neq 0$.
To show that the right derivative in the origin is $0$, note that for $x>0$
$$ -x^2 leq f(x) leq 0,$$
so that
$$-x leq frac{f(x)}{x} leq 0.$$
Thus
$$f'_+(0) = lim_{hrightarrow 0^+} frac{f(h)}{h}=0,$$
by the squeezing rule.
Note, by the way, that $f(x)$ is continuous and differentiable in $0$.
In the Figure below you see a plot of the function. The green line corresponds to the function $y=-x^2$ and the red line to the function $y=-frac{1}{2}x^2$.
So $f(x)$ satisfies the requirements, i.e. $f'_+(x) geq 0$, for all $xin Bbb R$, but for any $delta > 0$, $xin (0,delta) Rightarrow f(x) < 0$.
In conclusion, if $f(x)$ is not continuous your statement is clearly false.
EDIT
Following the same approach you can even force the right derivative at each point (except $0$) to be strictly positive. Consider, e.g., the function in the Figure below, where red lines are graphs of $y=-x|x|$ and $y=-frac{1}{2}x|x|$. Then $f(x)$ is defined as follows.
$$f(x) = begin{cases}frac{sqrt{2^{-k}}-sqrt{2^{-k+1}}}{sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}}(x+sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}})- sqrt{2^{-k+1}} & left(-sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}leq x<-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}; kin Bbb Zright)\ 0 & (x=0)\ frac{sqrt{2^{-k}}-sqrt{2^{-k+1}}}{sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}}(x-sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}})+ sqrt{2^{-k+1}}& left(sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}leq x<sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}; kin Bbb Zright) .end{cases}$$
Again the squeezing rule guarantees continuity and differentiability in $0$, with $f'(0) = 0$.
$endgroup$
Here is a counterexample. Define
$$
f(x) = begin{cases}
0 & (x leq 0)\
-frac{1}{2^n} & left(frac{1}{sqrt{2^n}} leq x < frac{1}{sqrt{2^{n-1}}}; n > 1 right)\
-frac{1}{2} & left(xgeq frac{1}{sqrt 2}right)
end{cases}
$$
Clearly
$$f'_+(x) = lim_{hrightarrow 0^+}frac{f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}=0$$
for all $x neq 0$.
To show that the right derivative in the origin is $0$, note that for $x>0$
$$ -x^2 leq f(x) leq 0,$$
so that
$$-x leq frac{f(x)}{x} leq 0.$$
Thus
$$f'_+(0) = lim_{hrightarrow 0^+} frac{f(h)}{h}=0,$$
by the squeezing rule.
Note, by the way, that $f(x)$ is continuous and differentiable in $0$.
In the Figure below you see a plot of the function. The green line corresponds to the function $y=-x^2$ and the red line to the function $y=-frac{1}{2}x^2$.
So $f(x)$ satisfies the requirements, i.e. $f'_+(x) geq 0$, for all $xin Bbb R$, but for any $delta > 0$, $xin (0,delta) Rightarrow f(x) < 0$.
In conclusion, if $f(x)$ is not continuous your statement is clearly false.
EDIT
Following the same approach you can even force the right derivative at each point (except $0$) to be strictly positive. Consider, e.g., the function in the Figure below, where red lines are graphs of $y=-x|x|$ and $y=-frac{1}{2}x|x|$. Then $f(x)$ is defined as follows.
$$f(x) = begin{cases}frac{sqrt{2^{-k}}-sqrt{2^{-k+1}}}{sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}}(x+sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}})- sqrt{2^{-k+1}} & left(-sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}leq x<-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}; kin Bbb Zright)\ 0 & (x=0)\ frac{sqrt{2^{-k}}-sqrt{2^{-k+1}}}{sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}-sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}}(x-sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}})+ sqrt{2^{-k+1}}& left(sqrt[4]{2^{-k}}leq x<sqrt[4]{2^{-k+1}}; kin Bbb Zright) .end{cases}$$
Again the squeezing rule guarantees continuity and differentiability in $0$, with $f'(0) = 0$.
edited Feb 6 at 17:49
answered Feb 2 at 17:09
MatteoMatteo
1,142313
1,142313
2
$begingroup$
Good counter example (+1).
$endgroup$
– Surb
Feb 2 at 20:10
add a comment |
2
$begingroup$
Good counter example (+1).
$endgroup$
– Surb
Feb 2 at 20:10
2
2
$begingroup$
Good counter example (+1).
$endgroup$
– Surb
Feb 2 at 20:10
$begingroup$
Good counter example (+1).
$endgroup$
– Surb
Feb 2 at 20:10
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Your approach doesn't. You've taken too loose an approximation. Instead, bound $|varepsilon(h)|$ by $f'_d(x)h$, and you have $f(x+h) = f(x)+f'_d(x)h + varepsilon(h) geq f(x) + f'_d(x)h - |varepsilon(h)| geq f(x) + f'_d(x)h - f'_d(x)h = f(x)$.
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– user3482749
Jan 26 at 17:53
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@user3482749: Thank you but why $|varepsilon (h)|leq f'(x)h$ ?
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– Dylan
Jan 26 at 17:56
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It's more : take $delta _x$ s.t. $|varepsilon (h)|leq f'_d(x)$ when $|h|leq delta _x$. This is possible since $varepsilon (h)to 0$
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– Surb
Jan 26 at 18:04
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@user3482749, I was curious about the question and read your comment. I didnt' get exactly your steps. My doubt is that you apparently (but I may be wrong) did not use the hypothesis that $f'_d(x)$ is non negative everywhere. This is definitely necessary for the statement to hold, If $f'_d(x)$ is non negative only at, say, $x_0$ then no conclusion can be drawn on the behavior of $f(x)$ in a neighborhood of $x_0$. Am I right?
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– Matteo
Jan 26 at 20:39
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It's not "derivable". It's "differentiable".
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– MathematicsStudent1122
Feb 2 at 17:24