Decide if the next infinite series are convergent or divergent.












-1












$begingroup$


I need help with this problem:



Decide if the next infinite series are convergent or divergent. The tools that you need to use are the Leibniz Theorem, the Comparison Test, Quotient Test and the Integral Test.





  1. $sum_{n=1}^infty {{sin (ntheta)}over{n^2}}$

  2. $sum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^n {{log n}over{n}}$




I don't know how to start. Can you please help me and explain me how to decide when to use one of the tests? Thanks.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    -1












    $begingroup$


    I need help with this problem:



    Decide if the next infinite series are convergent or divergent. The tools that you need to use are the Leibniz Theorem, the Comparison Test, Quotient Test and the Integral Test.





    1. $sum_{n=1}^infty {{sin (ntheta)}over{n^2}}$

    2. $sum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^n {{log n}over{n}}$




    I don't know how to start. Can you please help me and explain me how to decide when to use one of the tests? Thanks.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      -1












      -1








      -1





      $begingroup$


      I need help with this problem:



      Decide if the next infinite series are convergent or divergent. The tools that you need to use are the Leibniz Theorem, the Comparison Test, Quotient Test and the Integral Test.





      1. $sum_{n=1}^infty {{sin (ntheta)}over{n^2}}$

      2. $sum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^n {{log n}over{n}}$




      I don't know how to start. Can you please help me and explain me how to decide when to use one of the tests? Thanks.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I need help with this problem:



      Decide if the next infinite series are convergent or divergent. The tools that you need to use are the Leibniz Theorem, the Comparison Test, Quotient Test and the Integral Test.





      1. $sum_{n=1}^infty {{sin (ntheta)}over{n^2}}$

      2. $sum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^n {{log n}over{n}}$




      I don't know how to start. Can you please help me and explain me how to decide when to use one of the tests? Thanks.







      calculus sequences-and-series






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 28 at 4:28









      Naman Kumar

      23013




      23013










      asked Jan 28 at 4:18









      davidllerenavdavidllerenav

      3078




      3078






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          1












          $begingroup$

          $1$. Note that, Every absolutely convergent series is convergent.



          Now, $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lesum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}=frac{pi^2}{6}$. So, the series $sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{sin (ntheta)}{n}$ is absolutely convergent and hence convergent.



          $2$.For the second one we use alternating series test. Set $a_n=(-1)^nfrac{log n}{n}$ then, $|a_n|=frac{log n}{n}$ decreases monotonically as $n>log n$ for all $n>1$ with $displaystylelim_{nto infty}a_n=0$. Hence the series $sum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nfrac{log n}{n}$ converges.



          EDIT: Alternating series test, Absolute convergence, value of $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            How did you found that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lesum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$? Why did you choose $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$? Sorry I find this topic pretty difficult.
            $endgroup$
            – davidllerenav
            Jan 28 at 4:48










          • $begingroup$
            Oh, I see. Recall that $|sin x|le 1$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$ so each term of the $n$-th partial sum of the above series i.e. $displaystylesum_{n=1}^N |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|$ is less than $sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{n^2}$ for all $N=1,2,...$
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 4:51










          • $begingroup$
            Or, simply $|frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lefrac{1}{n^2}$ and take finite sum both sides then take the sum to infinite sum.
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 4:53






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            So $|sin(ntheta)|$ is always $leq 1$? And then the inequality will remain when we divide by $n^2$, right?
            $endgroup$
            – davidllerenav
            Jan 28 at 5:00










          • $begingroup$
            absolutely correct. and it is true for all n and for all theta.
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 5:02











          Your Answer





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          $begingroup$

          $1$. Note that, Every absolutely convergent series is convergent.



          Now, $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lesum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}=frac{pi^2}{6}$. So, the series $sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{sin (ntheta)}{n}$ is absolutely convergent and hence convergent.



          $2$.For the second one we use alternating series test. Set $a_n=(-1)^nfrac{log n}{n}$ then, $|a_n|=frac{log n}{n}$ decreases monotonically as $n>log n$ for all $n>1$ with $displaystylelim_{nto infty}a_n=0$. Hence the series $sum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nfrac{log n}{n}$ converges.



          EDIT: Alternating series test, Absolute convergence, value of $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            How did you found that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lesum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$? Why did you choose $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$? Sorry I find this topic pretty difficult.
            $endgroup$
            – davidllerenav
            Jan 28 at 4:48










          • $begingroup$
            Oh, I see. Recall that $|sin x|le 1$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$ so each term of the $n$-th partial sum of the above series i.e. $displaystylesum_{n=1}^N |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|$ is less than $sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{n^2}$ for all $N=1,2,...$
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 4:51










          • $begingroup$
            Or, simply $|frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lefrac{1}{n^2}$ and take finite sum both sides then take the sum to infinite sum.
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 4:53






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            So $|sin(ntheta)|$ is always $leq 1$? And then the inequality will remain when we divide by $n^2$, right?
            $endgroup$
            – davidllerenav
            Jan 28 at 5:00










          • $begingroup$
            absolutely correct. and it is true for all n and for all theta.
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 5:02
















          1












          $begingroup$

          $1$. Note that, Every absolutely convergent series is convergent.



          Now, $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lesum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}=frac{pi^2}{6}$. So, the series $sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{sin (ntheta)}{n}$ is absolutely convergent and hence convergent.



          $2$.For the second one we use alternating series test. Set $a_n=(-1)^nfrac{log n}{n}$ then, $|a_n|=frac{log n}{n}$ decreases monotonically as $n>log n$ for all $n>1$ with $displaystylelim_{nto infty}a_n=0$. Hence the series $sum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nfrac{log n}{n}$ converges.



          EDIT: Alternating series test, Absolute convergence, value of $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            How did you found that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lesum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$? Why did you choose $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$? Sorry I find this topic pretty difficult.
            $endgroup$
            – davidllerenav
            Jan 28 at 4:48










          • $begingroup$
            Oh, I see. Recall that $|sin x|le 1$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$ so each term of the $n$-th partial sum of the above series i.e. $displaystylesum_{n=1}^N |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|$ is less than $sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{n^2}$ for all $N=1,2,...$
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 4:51










          • $begingroup$
            Or, simply $|frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lefrac{1}{n^2}$ and take finite sum both sides then take the sum to infinite sum.
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 4:53






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            So $|sin(ntheta)|$ is always $leq 1$? And then the inequality will remain when we divide by $n^2$, right?
            $endgroup$
            – davidllerenav
            Jan 28 at 5:00










          • $begingroup$
            absolutely correct. and it is true for all n and for all theta.
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 5:02














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          $1$. Note that, Every absolutely convergent series is convergent.



          Now, $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lesum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}=frac{pi^2}{6}$. So, the series $sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{sin (ntheta)}{n}$ is absolutely convergent and hence convergent.



          $2$.For the second one we use alternating series test. Set $a_n=(-1)^nfrac{log n}{n}$ then, $|a_n|=frac{log n}{n}$ decreases monotonically as $n>log n$ for all $n>1$ with $displaystylelim_{nto infty}a_n=0$. Hence the series $sum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nfrac{log n}{n}$ converges.



          EDIT: Alternating series test, Absolute convergence, value of $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          $1$. Note that, Every absolutely convergent series is convergent.



          Now, $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lesum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}=frac{pi^2}{6}$. So, the series $sum_{n=1}^inftyfrac{sin (ntheta)}{n}$ is absolutely convergent and hence convergent.



          $2$.For the second one we use alternating series test. Set $a_n=(-1)^nfrac{log n}{n}$ then, $|a_n|=frac{log n}{n}$ decreases monotonically as $n>log n$ for all $n>1$ with $displaystylelim_{nto infty}a_n=0$. Hence the series $sum_{n=1}^infty (-1)^nfrac{log n}{n}$ converges.



          EDIT: Alternating series test, Absolute convergence, value of $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 28 at 4:31









          Sujit BhattacharyyaSujit Bhattacharyya

          1,580519




          1,580519












          • $begingroup$
            How did you found that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lesum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$? Why did you choose $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$? Sorry I find this topic pretty difficult.
            $endgroup$
            – davidllerenav
            Jan 28 at 4:48










          • $begingroup$
            Oh, I see. Recall that $|sin x|le 1$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$ so each term of the $n$-th partial sum of the above series i.e. $displaystylesum_{n=1}^N |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|$ is less than $sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{n^2}$ for all $N=1,2,...$
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 4:51










          • $begingroup$
            Or, simply $|frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lefrac{1}{n^2}$ and take finite sum both sides then take the sum to infinite sum.
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 4:53






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            So $|sin(ntheta)|$ is always $leq 1$? And then the inequality will remain when we divide by $n^2$, right?
            $endgroup$
            – davidllerenav
            Jan 28 at 5:00










          • $begingroup$
            absolutely correct. and it is true for all n and for all theta.
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 5:02


















          • $begingroup$
            How did you found that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lesum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$? Why did you choose $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$? Sorry I find this topic pretty difficult.
            $endgroup$
            – davidllerenav
            Jan 28 at 4:48










          • $begingroup$
            Oh, I see. Recall that $|sin x|le 1$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$ so each term of the $n$-th partial sum of the above series i.e. $displaystylesum_{n=1}^N |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|$ is less than $sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{n^2}$ for all $N=1,2,...$
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 4:51










          • $begingroup$
            Or, simply $|frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lefrac{1}{n^2}$ and take finite sum both sides then take the sum to infinite sum.
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 4:53






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            So $|sin(ntheta)|$ is always $leq 1$? And then the inequality will remain when we divide by $n^2$, right?
            $endgroup$
            – davidllerenav
            Jan 28 at 5:00










          • $begingroup$
            absolutely correct. and it is true for all n and for all theta.
            $endgroup$
            – Sujit Bhattacharyya
            Jan 28 at 5:02
















          $begingroup$
          How did you found that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lesum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$? Why did you choose $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$? Sorry I find this topic pretty difficult.
          $endgroup$
          – davidllerenav
          Jan 28 at 4:48




          $begingroup$
          How did you found that $displaystylesum_{n=1}^infty |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lesum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$? Why did you choose $sum_{n=1}^infty frac{1}{n^2}$? Sorry I find this topic pretty difficult.
          $endgroup$
          – davidllerenav
          Jan 28 at 4:48












          $begingroup$
          Oh, I see. Recall that $|sin x|le 1$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$ so each term of the $n$-th partial sum of the above series i.e. $displaystylesum_{n=1}^N |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|$ is less than $sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{n^2}$ for all $N=1,2,...$
          $endgroup$
          – Sujit Bhattacharyya
          Jan 28 at 4:51




          $begingroup$
          Oh, I see. Recall that $|sin x|le 1$ for all $xinmathbb{R}$ so each term of the $n$-th partial sum of the above series i.e. $displaystylesum_{n=1}^N |frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|$ is less than $sum_{n=1}^N frac{1}{n^2}$ for all $N=1,2,...$
          $endgroup$
          – Sujit Bhattacharyya
          Jan 28 at 4:51












          $begingroup$
          Or, simply $|frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lefrac{1}{n^2}$ and take finite sum both sides then take the sum to infinite sum.
          $endgroup$
          – Sujit Bhattacharyya
          Jan 28 at 4:53




          $begingroup$
          Or, simply $|frac{sin(ntheta)}{n^2}|lefrac{1}{n^2}$ and take finite sum both sides then take the sum to infinite sum.
          $endgroup$
          – Sujit Bhattacharyya
          Jan 28 at 4:53




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          So $|sin(ntheta)|$ is always $leq 1$? And then the inequality will remain when we divide by $n^2$, right?
          $endgroup$
          – davidllerenav
          Jan 28 at 5:00




          $begingroup$
          So $|sin(ntheta)|$ is always $leq 1$? And then the inequality will remain when we divide by $n^2$, right?
          $endgroup$
          – davidllerenav
          Jan 28 at 5:00












          $begingroup$
          absolutely correct. and it is true for all n and for all theta.
          $endgroup$
          – Sujit Bhattacharyya
          Jan 28 at 5:02




          $begingroup$
          absolutely correct. and it is true for all n and for all theta.
          $endgroup$
          – Sujit Bhattacharyya
          Jan 28 at 5:02


















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