Explore for convergence the following recurrence: $x_{n+1} = (1-x_n)^2, x_1 = {1over 2}, ninBbb N$












2












$begingroup$



Explore for convergence the following recurrence:
$$
x_{n+1} = (1-x_n)^2\
x_1 = {1over 2}\
ninBbb N
$$




To show a sequence is convergent it suffices to show it is bounded and monotonic. Obviously the the sequence is bounded by $1$ and $0$:
$$
0 le x_n le 1
$$



Check whether the sequence is monotonic:
$$
{1over 2} = x_1 > x_2 = {1over 4}
$$



Put $P(n): x_n > x_{n+1}forall ninBbb N$. $P(1)$ is true. Assume $P(n)$ is true. Then:
$$
x_{n+1} < x_n\
-x_{n+1} > -x_n \
1 - x_{n+1} > 1 - x_n \
(1 - x_{n+1})^2 > (1 - x_n)^2 \
x_{n+2} > x_{n+1}
$$



showing the induction hypotheses doesn't hold. However if we put it the following way:
$$
x_{n+1} < x_n \
x_{k+1} - 1 < x_n - 1 \
(x_{k+1} - 1)^2 < (x_n - 1)^2 \
(1 - x_{k+1})^2 < (1 - x_n)^2 \
x_{n+2} < x_{n+1}
$$



which completes the induction.



Clearly that is impossible. I believe the mistake is in the squaring step. Apparently there is a veil before my eyes preventing me from spotting it. What went wrong with the two cases?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$



    Explore for convergence the following recurrence:
    $$
    x_{n+1} = (1-x_n)^2\
    x_1 = {1over 2}\
    ninBbb N
    $$




    To show a sequence is convergent it suffices to show it is bounded and monotonic. Obviously the the sequence is bounded by $1$ and $0$:
    $$
    0 le x_n le 1
    $$



    Check whether the sequence is monotonic:
    $$
    {1over 2} = x_1 > x_2 = {1over 4}
    $$



    Put $P(n): x_n > x_{n+1}forall ninBbb N$. $P(1)$ is true. Assume $P(n)$ is true. Then:
    $$
    x_{n+1} < x_n\
    -x_{n+1} > -x_n \
    1 - x_{n+1} > 1 - x_n \
    (1 - x_{n+1})^2 > (1 - x_n)^2 \
    x_{n+2} > x_{n+1}
    $$



    showing the induction hypotheses doesn't hold. However if we put it the following way:
    $$
    x_{n+1} < x_n \
    x_{k+1} - 1 < x_n - 1 \
    (x_{k+1} - 1)^2 < (x_n - 1)^2 \
    (1 - x_{k+1})^2 < (1 - x_n)^2 \
    x_{n+2} < x_{n+1}
    $$



    which completes the induction.



    Clearly that is impossible. I believe the mistake is in the squaring step. Apparently there is a veil before my eyes preventing me from spotting it. What went wrong with the two cases?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$



      Explore for convergence the following recurrence:
      $$
      x_{n+1} = (1-x_n)^2\
      x_1 = {1over 2}\
      ninBbb N
      $$




      To show a sequence is convergent it suffices to show it is bounded and monotonic. Obviously the the sequence is bounded by $1$ and $0$:
      $$
      0 le x_n le 1
      $$



      Check whether the sequence is monotonic:
      $$
      {1over 2} = x_1 > x_2 = {1over 4}
      $$



      Put $P(n): x_n > x_{n+1}forall ninBbb N$. $P(1)$ is true. Assume $P(n)$ is true. Then:
      $$
      x_{n+1} < x_n\
      -x_{n+1} > -x_n \
      1 - x_{n+1} > 1 - x_n \
      (1 - x_{n+1})^2 > (1 - x_n)^2 \
      x_{n+2} > x_{n+1}
      $$



      showing the induction hypotheses doesn't hold. However if we put it the following way:
      $$
      x_{n+1} < x_n \
      x_{k+1} - 1 < x_n - 1 \
      (x_{k+1} - 1)^2 < (x_n - 1)^2 \
      (1 - x_{k+1})^2 < (1 - x_n)^2 \
      x_{n+2} < x_{n+1}
      $$



      which completes the induction.



      Clearly that is impossible. I believe the mistake is in the squaring step. Apparently there is a veil before my eyes preventing me from spotting it. What went wrong with the two cases?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      Explore for convergence the following recurrence:
      $$
      x_{n+1} = (1-x_n)^2\
      x_1 = {1over 2}\
      ninBbb N
      $$




      To show a sequence is convergent it suffices to show it is bounded and monotonic. Obviously the the sequence is bounded by $1$ and $0$:
      $$
      0 le x_n le 1
      $$



      Check whether the sequence is monotonic:
      $$
      {1over 2} = x_1 > x_2 = {1over 4}
      $$



      Put $P(n): x_n > x_{n+1}forall ninBbb N$. $P(1)$ is true. Assume $P(n)$ is true. Then:
      $$
      x_{n+1} < x_n\
      -x_{n+1} > -x_n \
      1 - x_{n+1} > 1 - x_n \
      (1 - x_{n+1})^2 > (1 - x_n)^2 \
      x_{n+2} > x_{n+1}
      $$



      showing the induction hypotheses doesn't hold. However if we put it the following way:
      $$
      x_{n+1} < x_n \
      x_{k+1} - 1 < x_n - 1 \
      (x_{k+1} - 1)^2 < (x_n - 1)^2 \
      (1 - x_{k+1})^2 < (1 - x_n)^2 \
      x_{n+2} < x_{n+1}
      $$



      which completes the induction.



      Clearly that is impossible. I believe the mistake is in the squaring step. Apparently there is a veil before my eyes preventing me from spotting it. What went wrong with the two cases?







      calculus sequences-and-series limits proof-verification recurrence-relations






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 27 at 12:13







      roman

















      asked Jan 27 at 12:03









      romanroman

      2,39321225




      2,39321225






















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          2












          $begingroup$

          You can not do $x_{n+1} - 1 < x_n - 1 \
          implies (x_{n+1} - 1)^2 < (x_n - 1)^2 $



          because both LHS and RHS of inequalities is negative.



          For eg. $-1 > -2$ but $1^2 < 2^2$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you. Seems like the limit doesn't exist after all.
            $endgroup$
            – roman
            Jan 27 at 12:16










          • $begingroup$
            @roman this is not a correct conclusion. Only because your method doesn't work doesn't mean that the assumption is wrong.
            $endgroup$
            – Nathanael Skrepek
            Jan 27 at 12:22










          • $begingroup$
            @NathanaelSkrepek You are right, i meant after some further inspection there are two limit points for $x_{2k}$ and $x_{2k+1}$, which shows the sequence is divergent.
            $endgroup$
            – roman
            Jan 27 at 12:25










          • $begingroup$
            @roman Yes, the sequence starts alternating between a value close to $0$ and a value close to $1$
            $endgroup$
            – ab123
            Jan 27 at 12:27



















          2












          $begingroup$

          If you look at the sequences $newcommand{N}{mathbb{N}}(a_n)_{ninN} :=(x_{2n})_{ninN}$ and $(b_n)_{ninN}:=(x_{2n-1})_{ninN}$ then you can show that both of them will converge to different limits. We start with using the recursion twice
          $$
          x_{n+2} = (1-x_{n+1})^2 = (1-(1-x_n)^2)^2 = dots = x_n^4 - 4x_n^3 + 4x_n^2
          $$

          We define the polynomial function $p(x) := x^4 - 4x^3 + 4x^2$. some curve sketching yields that this function is monoton increasing for $xin (0,1)$. The recursion for $a_n$ and $b_n$ is given by
          $$
          a_{n+1} = a_n^4 - 4a_n^3 + 4a_n^2, quad a_1 = frac{1}{4} \
          b_{n+1} = b_n^4 - 4b_n^3 + 4b_n^2, quad b_1 = frac{1}{2}
          $$

          As you already said $0<x_n<1$. Clearly, this is also true for $a_n$ and $b_n$.
          It is straight forward to check that $b_2 > b_1$. Hence, $(b_n)_{ninN}$ is convergent. To evaluate the limit point you have to solve $x = p(x)$. It is easy to see that $0$ and $1$ are solutions. By polynomial division you can find the other solution by solving a quadratic equation. You will realize that only the solution $1$ can be the limit of $(b_n)_{ninN}$.



          Since $a_n = (1-b_n)^2$, the limit of $(a_n)_{ninN}$ is $0$. Therefore, $(x_n)_{nin N}$ cannot converge.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$





















            2












            $begingroup$

            Just to have a complete answer, from $x_{n+1}=f(x_n)$, where $f(x)=(1-x)^2$, we have $f'(x)=-2(1-x)$. Or $f(x)$ is descending on $[0,1]$. Sequence is bounded indeed $0leq x_n leq 1$, can be show using induction. Let's compute a few values
            $$x_1=frac{1}{2} > x_2=frac{1}{4} > x_4=frac{49}{256}$$
            $$x_1=frac{1}{2}< x_3=frac{9}{16} < x_5=frac{42849}{65536}$$
            and because the function $f(x)$ is descending
            $$f(x_2)leq f(x_4) iff x_3 leq x_5 \
            f(x_3) geq f(x_5) iff x_4 geq x_6 \
            f(x_4) leq f(x_6) iff x_5 leq x_7 \
            ...$$

            By induction, we have
            $$x_1>x_2>x_4geq x_6 geq ... geq x_{2k} geq ...$$
            $$x_1<x_3<x_5leq x_7 leq ... leq x_{2k+1} leq ...$$
            i.e. we have a decreasing subsequence $left(x_{2k}right)_{kinmathbb{N}}$ and increasing one $left(x_{2k+1}right)_{kinmathbb{N}}$ both bounded, so both these subsequences have limits
            $$frac{1}{4}=x_2 geq limlimits_{krightarrowinfty}x_{2k}$$
            $$frac{9}{16}=x_3 leq limlimits_{krightarrowinfty}x_{2k+1}$$
            and these limits are different. As a result, the original sequence is diverging.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              2












              $begingroup$

              You can not do $x_{n+1} - 1 < x_n - 1 \
              implies (x_{n+1} - 1)^2 < (x_n - 1)^2 $



              because both LHS and RHS of inequalities is negative.



              For eg. $-1 > -2$ but $1^2 < 2^2$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                Thank you. Seems like the limit doesn't exist after all.
                $endgroup$
                – roman
                Jan 27 at 12:16










              • $begingroup$
                @roman this is not a correct conclusion. Only because your method doesn't work doesn't mean that the assumption is wrong.
                $endgroup$
                – Nathanael Skrepek
                Jan 27 at 12:22










              • $begingroup$
                @NathanaelSkrepek You are right, i meant after some further inspection there are two limit points for $x_{2k}$ and $x_{2k+1}$, which shows the sequence is divergent.
                $endgroup$
                – roman
                Jan 27 at 12:25










              • $begingroup$
                @roman Yes, the sequence starts alternating between a value close to $0$ and a value close to $1$
                $endgroup$
                – ab123
                Jan 27 at 12:27
















              2












              $begingroup$

              You can not do $x_{n+1} - 1 < x_n - 1 \
              implies (x_{n+1} - 1)^2 < (x_n - 1)^2 $



              because both LHS and RHS of inequalities is negative.



              For eg. $-1 > -2$ but $1^2 < 2^2$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$













              • $begingroup$
                Thank you. Seems like the limit doesn't exist after all.
                $endgroup$
                – roman
                Jan 27 at 12:16










              • $begingroup$
                @roman this is not a correct conclusion. Only because your method doesn't work doesn't mean that the assumption is wrong.
                $endgroup$
                – Nathanael Skrepek
                Jan 27 at 12:22










              • $begingroup$
                @NathanaelSkrepek You are right, i meant after some further inspection there are two limit points for $x_{2k}$ and $x_{2k+1}$, which shows the sequence is divergent.
                $endgroup$
                – roman
                Jan 27 at 12:25










              • $begingroup$
                @roman Yes, the sequence starts alternating between a value close to $0$ and a value close to $1$
                $endgroup$
                – ab123
                Jan 27 at 12:27














              2












              2








              2





              $begingroup$

              You can not do $x_{n+1} - 1 < x_n - 1 \
              implies (x_{n+1} - 1)^2 < (x_n - 1)^2 $



              because both LHS and RHS of inequalities is negative.



              For eg. $-1 > -2$ but $1^2 < 2^2$






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$



              You can not do $x_{n+1} - 1 < x_n - 1 \
              implies (x_{n+1} - 1)^2 < (x_n - 1)^2 $



              because both LHS and RHS of inequalities is negative.



              For eg. $-1 > -2$ but $1^2 < 2^2$







              share|cite|improve this answer












              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer










              answered Jan 27 at 12:10









              ab123ab123

              1,799423




              1,799423












              • $begingroup$
                Thank you. Seems like the limit doesn't exist after all.
                $endgroup$
                – roman
                Jan 27 at 12:16










              • $begingroup$
                @roman this is not a correct conclusion. Only because your method doesn't work doesn't mean that the assumption is wrong.
                $endgroup$
                – Nathanael Skrepek
                Jan 27 at 12:22










              • $begingroup$
                @NathanaelSkrepek You are right, i meant after some further inspection there are two limit points for $x_{2k}$ and $x_{2k+1}$, which shows the sequence is divergent.
                $endgroup$
                – roman
                Jan 27 at 12:25










              • $begingroup$
                @roman Yes, the sequence starts alternating between a value close to $0$ and a value close to $1$
                $endgroup$
                – ab123
                Jan 27 at 12:27


















              • $begingroup$
                Thank you. Seems like the limit doesn't exist after all.
                $endgroup$
                – roman
                Jan 27 at 12:16










              • $begingroup$
                @roman this is not a correct conclusion. Only because your method doesn't work doesn't mean that the assumption is wrong.
                $endgroup$
                – Nathanael Skrepek
                Jan 27 at 12:22










              • $begingroup$
                @NathanaelSkrepek You are right, i meant after some further inspection there are two limit points for $x_{2k}$ and $x_{2k+1}$, which shows the sequence is divergent.
                $endgroup$
                – roman
                Jan 27 at 12:25










              • $begingroup$
                @roman Yes, the sequence starts alternating between a value close to $0$ and a value close to $1$
                $endgroup$
                – ab123
                Jan 27 at 12:27
















              $begingroup$
              Thank you. Seems like the limit doesn't exist after all.
              $endgroup$
              – roman
              Jan 27 at 12:16




              $begingroup$
              Thank you. Seems like the limit doesn't exist after all.
              $endgroup$
              – roman
              Jan 27 at 12:16












              $begingroup$
              @roman this is not a correct conclusion. Only because your method doesn't work doesn't mean that the assumption is wrong.
              $endgroup$
              – Nathanael Skrepek
              Jan 27 at 12:22




              $begingroup$
              @roman this is not a correct conclusion. Only because your method doesn't work doesn't mean that the assumption is wrong.
              $endgroup$
              – Nathanael Skrepek
              Jan 27 at 12:22












              $begingroup$
              @NathanaelSkrepek You are right, i meant after some further inspection there are two limit points for $x_{2k}$ and $x_{2k+1}$, which shows the sequence is divergent.
              $endgroup$
              – roman
              Jan 27 at 12:25




              $begingroup$
              @NathanaelSkrepek You are right, i meant after some further inspection there are two limit points for $x_{2k}$ and $x_{2k+1}$, which shows the sequence is divergent.
              $endgroup$
              – roman
              Jan 27 at 12:25












              $begingroup$
              @roman Yes, the sequence starts alternating between a value close to $0$ and a value close to $1$
              $endgroup$
              – ab123
              Jan 27 at 12:27




              $begingroup$
              @roman Yes, the sequence starts alternating between a value close to $0$ and a value close to $1$
              $endgroup$
              – ab123
              Jan 27 at 12:27











              2












              $begingroup$

              If you look at the sequences $newcommand{N}{mathbb{N}}(a_n)_{ninN} :=(x_{2n})_{ninN}$ and $(b_n)_{ninN}:=(x_{2n-1})_{ninN}$ then you can show that both of them will converge to different limits. We start with using the recursion twice
              $$
              x_{n+2} = (1-x_{n+1})^2 = (1-(1-x_n)^2)^2 = dots = x_n^4 - 4x_n^3 + 4x_n^2
              $$

              We define the polynomial function $p(x) := x^4 - 4x^3 + 4x^2$. some curve sketching yields that this function is monoton increasing for $xin (0,1)$. The recursion for $a_n$ and $b_n$ is given by
              $$
              a_{n+1} = a_n^4 - 4a_n^3 + 4a_n^2, quad a_1 = frac{1}{4} \
              b_{n+1} = b_n^4 - 4b_n^3 + 4b_n^2, quad b_1 = frac{1}{2}
              $$

              As you already said $0<x_n<1$. Clearly, this is also true for $a_n$ and $b_n$.
              It is straight forward to check that $b_2 > b_1$. Hence, $(b_n)_{ninN}$ is convergent. To evaluate the limit point you have to solve $x = p(x)$. It is easy to see that $0$ and $1$ are solutions. By polynomial division you can find the other solution by solving a quadratic equation. You will realize that only the solution $1$ can be the limit of $(b_n)_{ninN}$.



              Since $a_n = (1-b_n)^2$, the limit of $(a_n)_{ninN}$ is $0$. Therefore, $(x_n)_{nin N}$ cannot converge.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                If you look at the sequences $newcommand{N}{mathbb{N}}(a_n)_{ninN} :=(x_{2n})_{ninN}$ and $(b_n)_{ninN}:=(x_{2n-1})_{ninN}$ then you can show that both of them will converge to different limits. We start with using the recursion twice
                $$
                x_{n+2} = (1-x_{n+1})^2 = (1-(1-x_n)^2)^2 = dots = x_n^4 - 4x_n^3 + 4x_n^2
                $$

                We define the polynomial function $p(x) := x^4 - 4x^3 + 4x^2$. some curve sketching yields that this function is monoton increasing for $xin (0,1)$. The recursion for $a_n$ and $b_n$ is given by
                $$
                a_{n+1} = a_n^4 - 4a_n^3 + 4a_n^2, quad a_1 = frac{1}{4} \
                b_{n+1} = b_n^4 - 4b_n^3 + 4b_n^2, quad b_1 = frac{1}{2}
                $$

                As you already said $0<x_n<1$. Clearly, this is also true for $a_n$ and $b_n$.
                It is straight forward to check that $b_2 > b_1$. Hence, $(b_n)_{ninN}$ is convergent. To evaluate the limit point you have to solve $x = p(x)$. It is easy to see that $0$ and $1$ are solutions. By polynomial division you can find the other solution by solving a quadratic equation. You will realize that only the solution $1$ can be the limit of $(b_n)_{ninN}$.



                Since $a_n = (1-b_n)^2$, the limit of $(a_n)_{ninN}$ is $0$. Therefore, $(x_n)_{nin N}$ cannot converge.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  If you look at the sequences $newcommand{N}{mathbb{N}}(a_n)_{ninN} :=(x_{2n})_{ninN}$ and $(b_n)_{ninN}:=(x_{2n-1})_{ninN}$ then you can show that both of them will converge to different limits. We start with using the recursion twice
                  $$
                  x_{n+2} = (1-x_{n+1})^2 = (1-(1-x_n)^2)^2 = dots = x_n^4 - 4x_n^3 + 4x_n^2
                  $$

                  We define the polynomial function $p(x) := x^4 - 4x^3 + 4x^2$. some curve sketching yields that this function is monoton increasing for $xin (0,1)$. The recursion for $a_n$ and $b_n$ is given by
                  $$
                  a_{n+1} = a_n^4 - 4a_n^3 + 4a_n^2, quad a_1 = frac{1}{4} \
                  b_{n+1} = b_n^4 - 4b_n^3 + 4b_n^2, quad b_1 = frac{1}{2}
                  $$

                  As you already said $0<x_n<1$. Clearly, this is also true for $a_n$ and $b_n$.
                  It is straight forward to check that $b_2 > b_1$. Hence, $(b_n)_{ninN}$ is convergent. To evaluate the limit point you have to solve $x = p(x)$. It is easy to see that $0$ and $1$ are solutions. By polynomial division you can find the other solution by solving a quadratic equation. You will realize that only the solution $1$ can be the limit of $(b_n)_{ninN}$.



                  Since $a_n = (1-b_n)^2$, the limit of $(a_n)_{ninN}$ is $0$. Therefore, $(x_n)_{nin N}$ cannot converge.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  If you look at the sequences $newcommand{N}{mathbb{N}}(a_n)_{ninN} :=(x_{2n})_{ninN}$ and $(b_n)_{ninN}:=(x_{2n-1})_{ninN}$ then you can show that both of them will converge to different limits. We start with using the recursion twice
                  $$
                  x_{n+2} = (1-x_{n+1})^2 = (1-(1-x_n)^2)^2 = dots = x_n^4 - 4x_n^3 + 4x_n^2
                  $$

                  We define the polynomial function $p(x) := x^4 - 4x^3 + 4x^2$. some curve sketching yields that this function is monoton increasing for $xin (0,1)$. The recursion for $a_n$ and $b_n$ is given by
                  $$
                  a_{n+1} = a_n^4 - 4a_n^3 + 4a_n^2, quad a_1 = frac{1}{4} \
                  b_{n+1} = b_n^4 - 4b_n^3 + 4b_n^2, quad b_1 = frac{1}{2}
                  $$

                  As you already said $0<x_n<1$. Clearly, this is also true for $a_n$ and $b_n$.
                  It is straight forward to check that $b_2 > b_1$. Hence, $(b_n)_{ninN}$ is convergent. To evaluate the limit point you have to solve $x = p(x)$. It is easy to see that $0$ and $1$ are solutions. By polynomial division you can find the other solution by solving a quadratic equation. You will realize that only the solution $1$ can be the limit of $(b_n)_{ninN}$.



                  Since $a_n = (1-b_n)^2$, the limit of $(a_n)_{ninN}$ is $0$. Therefore, $(x_n)_{nin N}$ cannot converge.







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                  answered Jan 27 at 12:53









                  Nathanael SkrepekNathanael Skrepek

                  1,7111615




                  1,7111615























                      2












                      $begingroup$

                      Just to have a complete answer, from $x_{n+1}=f(x_n)$, where $f(x)=(1-x)^2$, we have $f'(x)=-2(1-x)$. Or $f(x)$ is descending on $[0,1]$. Sequence is bounded indeed $0leq x_n leq 1$, can be show using induction. Let's compute a few values
                      $$x_1=frac{1}{2} > x_2=frac{1}{4} > x_4=frac{49}{256}$$
                      $$x_1=frac{1}{2}< x_3=frac{9}{16} < x_5=frac{42849}{65536}$$
                      and because the function $f(x)$ is descending
                      $$f(x_2)leq f(x_4) iff x_3 leq x_5 \
                      f(x_3) geq f(x_5) iff x_4 geq x_6 \
                      f(x_4) leq f(x_6) iff x_5 leq x_7 \
                      ...$$

                      By induction, we have
                      $$x_1>x_2>x_4geq x_6 geq ... geq x_{2k} geq ...$$
                      $$x_1<x_3<x_5leq x_7 leq ... leq x_{2k+1} leq ...$$
                      i.e. we have a decreasing subsequence $left(x_{2k}right)_{kinmathbb{N}}$ and increasing one $left(x_{2k+1}right)_{kinmathbb{N}}$ both bounded, so both these subsequences have limits
                      $$frac{1}{4}=x_2 geq limlimits_{krightarrowinfty}x_{2k}$$
                      $$frac{9}{16}=x_3 leq limlimits_{krightarrowinfty}x_{2k+1}$$
                      and these limits are different. As a result, the original sequence is diverging.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$


















                        2












                        $begingroup$

                        Just to have a complete answer, from $x_{n+1}=f(x_n)$, where $f(x)=(1-x)^2$, we have $f'(x)=-2(1-x)$. Or $f(x)$ is descending on $[0,1]$. Sequence is bounded indeed $0leq x_n leq 1$, can be show using induction. Let's compute a few values
                        $$x_1=frac{1}{2} > x_2=frac{1}{4} > x_4=frac{49}{256}$$
                        $$x_1=frac{1}{2}< x_3=frac{9}{16} < x_5=frac{42849}{65536}$$
                        and because the function $f(x)$ is descending
                        $$f(x_2)leq f(x_4) iff x_3 leq x_5 \
                        f(x_3) geq f(x_5) iff x_4 geq x_6 \
                        f(x_4) leq f(x_6) iff x_5 leq x_7 \
                        ...$$

                        By induction, we have
                        $$x_1>x_2>x_4geq x_6 geq ... geq x_{2k} geq ...$$
                        $$x_1<x_3<x_5leq x_7 leq ... leq x_{2k+1} leq ...$$
                        i.e. we have a decreasing subsequence $left(x_{2k}right)_{kinmathbb{N}}$ and increasing one $left(x_{2k+1}right)_{kinmathbb{N}}$ both bounded, so both these subsequences have limits
                        $$frac{1}{4}=x_2 geq limlimits_{krightarrowinfty}x_{2k}$$
                        $$frac{9}{16}=x_3 leq limlimits_{krightarrowinfty}x_{2k+1}$$
                        and these limits are different. As a result, the original sequence is diverging.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$
















                          2












                          2








                          2





                          $begingroup$

                          Just to have a complete answer, from $x_{n+1}=f(x_n)$, where $f(x)=(1-x)^2$, we have $f'(x)=-2(1-x)$. Or $f(x)$ is descending on $[0,1]$. Sequence is bounded indeed $0leq x_n leq 1$, can be show using induction. Let's compute a few values
                          $$x_1=frac{1}{2} > x_2=frac{1}{4} > x_4=frac{49}{256}$$
                          $$x_1=frac{1}{2}< x_3=frac{9}{16} < x_5=frac{42849}{65536}$$
                          and because the function $f(x)$ is descending
                          $$f(x_2)leq f(x_4) iff x_3 leq x_5 \
                          f(x_3) geq f(x_5) iff x_4 geq x_6 \
                          f(x_4) leq f(x_6) iff x_5 leq x_7 \
                          ...$$

                          By induction, we have
                          $$x_1>x_2>x_4geq x_6 geq ... geq x_{2k} geq ...$$
                          $$x_1<x_3<x_5leq x_7 leq ... leq x_{2k+1} leq ...$$
                          i.e. we have a decreasing subsequence $left(x_{2k}right)_{kinmathbb{N}}$ and increasing one $left(x_{2k+1}right)_{kinmathbb{N}}$ both bounded, so both these subsequences have limits
                          $$frac{1}{4}=x_2 geq limlimits_{krightarrowinfty}x_{2k}$$
                          $$frac{9}{16}=x_3 leq limlimits_{krightarrowinfty}x_{2k+1}$$
                          and these limits are different. As a result, the original sequence is diverging.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          Just to have a complete answer, from $x_{n+1}=f(x_n)$, where $f(x)=(1-x)^2$, we have $f'(x)=-2(1-x)$. Or $f(x)$ is descending on $[0,1]$. Sequence is bounded indeed $0leq x_n leq 1$, can be show using induction. Let's compute a few values
                          $$x_1=frac{1}{2} > x_2=frac{1}{4} > x_4=frac{49}{256}$$
                          $$x_1=frac{1}{2}< x_3=frac{9}{16} < x_5=frac{42849}{65536}$$
                          and because the function $f(x)$ is descending
                          $$f(x_2)leq f(x_4) iff x_3 leq x_5 \
                          f(x_3) geq f(x_5) iff x_4 geq x_6 \
                          f(x_4) leq f(x_6) iff x_5 leq x_7 \
                          ...$$

                          By induction, we have
                          $$x_1>x_2>x_4geq x_6 geq ... geq x_{2k} geq ...$$
                          $$x_1<x_3<x_5leq x_7 leq ... leq x_{2k+1} leq ...$$
                          i.e. we have a decreasing subsequence $left(x_{2k}right)_{kinmathbb{N}}$ and increasing one $left(x_{2k+1}right)_{kinmathbb{N}}$ both bounded, so both these subsequences have limits
                          $$frac{1}{4}=x_2 geq limlimits_{krightarrowinfty}x_{2k}$$
                          $$frac{9}{16}=x_3 leq limlimits_{krightarrowinfty}x_{2k+1}$$
                          and these limits are different. As a result, the original sequence is diverging.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered Jan 27 at 13:06









                          rtybasertybase

                          11.5k31534




                          11.5k31534






























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