vector field of real projective space












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$begingroup$


Let $RP^n$ the real projective space. This is a manifold and i have take the usual charts in order to prove it. The problem is that i don't know how to define a vector field on that.



Since $RP^n$ is a set of lines that passes through the point (0,...,0) could I claim that the vector space is a map that takes every point of $RP^n$ - line and sends it to a vector $overline {OP}$ ,where O is the origin and P is a point of the line ?



Is there a concrete example on $PR^2$?










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$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    Let $RP^n$ the real projective space. This is a manifold and i have take the usual charts in order to prove it. The problem is that i don't know how to define a vector field on that.



    Since $RP^n$ is a set of lines that passes through the point (0,...,0) could I claim that the vector space is a map that takes every point of $RP^n$ - line and sends it to a vector $overline {OP}$ ,where O is the origin and P is a point of the line ?



    Is there a concrete example on $PR^2$?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1


      0



      $begingroup$


      Let $RP^n$ the real projective space. This is a manifold and i have take the usual charts in order to prove it. The problem is that i don't know how to define a vector field on that.



      Since $RP^n$ is a set of lines that passes through the point (0,...,0) could I claim that the vector space is a map that takes every point of $RP^n$ - line and sends it to a vector $overline {OP}$ ,where O is the origin and P is a point of the line ?



      Is there a concrete example on $PR^2$?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $RP^n$ the real projective space. This is a manifold and i have take the usual charts in order to prove it. The problem is that i don't know how to define a vector field on that.



      Since $RP^n$ is a set of lines that passes through the point (0,...,0) could I claim that the vector space is a map that takes every point of $RP^n$ - line and sends it to a vector $overline {OP}$ ,where O is the origin and P is a point of the line ?



      Is there a concrete example on $PR^2$?







      manifolds






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      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 27 at 15:48









      janejane

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      264






















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          $begingroup$

          We can visualize $RP^2$ as the plane in $mathbb R^3$ at $z=1$.



          We can write a point as $(x:y:1)$. Or more generally as $(x:y:z)$, which we consider equivalent to $(frac xz:frac yz:1)$ if $zne 0$. Consequently all points on a line through the origin are equivalent. And a point $(x:y:0)$ is a point at infinity, which is also an element of $RP^2$.



          An obvious choice for a local chart is $phi: (x:y:1)mapsto (x,y)$.



          Taking the partial derivatives gives us the representations $fracpartial{partial x}=(1:0:0)$ and $fracpartial{partial y}=(0:1:0)$. Note that these correspond exactly with the standard unit vectors in the plane $z=1$.



          A vector field $X: RP^2to TRP^2$ can now locally be written as:
          $$X(mathbf x) = X(x:y:1) = xi(mathbf x)fracpartial{partial x} + eta(mathbf x)fracpartial{partial y} = (xi(mathbf x):eta(mathbf x):0)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









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          • 1




            $begingroup$
            oh...i get it ..thanks...
            $endgroup$
            – jane
            Feb 3 at 17:33











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          $begingroup$

          We can visualize $RP^2$ as the plane in $mathbb R^3$ at $z=1$.



          We can write a point as $(x:y:1)$. Or more generally as $(x:y:z)$, which we consider equivalent to $(frac xz:frac yz:1)$ if $zne 0$. Consequently all points on a line through the origin are equivalent. And a point $(x:y:0)$ is a point at infinity, which is also an element of $RP^2$.



          An obvious choice for a local chart is $phi: (x:y:1)mapsto (x,y)$.



          Taking the partial derivatives gives us the representations $fracpartial{partial x}=(1:0:0)$ and $fracpartial{partial y}=(0:1:0)$. Note that these correspond exactly with the standard unit vectors in the plane $z=1$.



          A vector field $X: RP^2to TRP^2$ can now locally be written as:
          $$X(mathbf x) = X(x:y:1) = xi(mathbf x)fracpartial{partial x} + eta(mathbf x)fracpartial{partial y} = (xi(mathbf x):eta(mathbf x):0)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            oh...i get it ..thanks...
            $endgroup$
            – jane
            Feb 3 at 17:33
















          0












          $begingroup$

          We can visualize $RP^2$ as the plane in $mathbb R^3$ at $z=1$.



          We can write a point as $(x:y:1)$. Or more generally as $(x:y:z)$, which we consider equivalent to $(frac xz:frac yz:1)$ if $zne 0$. Consequently all points on a line through the origin are equivalent. And a point $(x:y:0)$ is a point at infinity, which is also an element of $RP^2$.



          An obvious choice for a local chart is $phi: (x:y:1)mapsto (x,y)$.



          Taking the partial derivatives gives us the representations $fracpartial{partial x}=(1:0:0)$ and $fracpartial{partial y}=(0:1:0)$. Note that these correspond exactly with the standard unit vectors in the plane $z=1$.



          A vector field $X: RP^2to TRP^2$ can now locally be written as:
          $$X(mathbf x) = X(x:y:1) = xi(mathbf x)fracpartial{partial x} + eta(mathbf x)fracpartial{partial y} = (xi(mathbf x):eta(mathbf x):0)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            oh...i get it ..thanks...
            $endgroup$
            – jane
            Feb 3 at 17:33














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          We can visualize $RP^2$ as the plane in $mathbb R^3$ at $z=1$.



          We can write a point as $(x:y:1)$. Or more generally as $(x:y:z)$, which we consider equivalent to $(frac xz:frac yz:1)$ if $zne 0$. Consequently all points on a line through the origin are equivalent. And a point $(x:y:0)$ is a point at infinity, which is also an element of $RP^2$.



          An obvious choice for a local chart is $phi: (x:y:1)mapsto (x,y)$.



          Taking the partial derivatives gives us the representations $fracpartial{partial x}=(1:0:0)$ and $fracpartial{partial y}=(0:1:0)$. Note that these correspond exactly with the standard unit vectors in the plane $z=1$.



          A vector field $X: RP^2to TRP^2$ can now locally be written as:
          $$X(mathbf x) = X(x:y:1) = xi(mathbf x)fracpartial{partial x} + eta(mathbf x)fracpartial{partial y} = (xi(mathbf x):eta(mathbf x):0)$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          We can visualize $RP^2$ as the plane in $mathbb R^3$ at $z=1$.



          We can write a point as $(x:y:1)$. Or more generally as $(x:y:z)$, which we consider equivalent to $(frac xz:frac yz:1)$ if $zne 0$. Consequently all points on a line through the origin are equivalent. And a point $(x:y:0)$ is a point at infinity, which is also an element of $RP^2$.



          An obvious choice for a local chart is $phi: (x:y:1)mapsto (x,y)$.



          Taking the partial derivatives gives us the representations $fracpartial{partial x}=(1:0:0)$ and $fracpartial{partial y}=(0:1:0)$. Note that these correspond exactly with the standard unit vectors in the plane $z=1$.



          A vector field $X: RP^2to TRP^2$ can now locally be written as:
          $$X(mathbf x) = X(x:y:1) = xi(mathbf x)fracpartial{partial x} + eta(mathbf x)fracpartial{partial y} = (xi(mathbf x):eta(mathbf x):0)$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Feb 2 at 20:18









          Klaas van AarsenKlaas van Aarsen

          4,3421822




          4,3421822








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            oh...i get it ..thanks...
            $endgroup$
            – jane
            Feb 3 at 17:33














          • 1




            $begingroup$
            oh...i get it ..thanks...
            $endgroup$
            – jane
            Feb 3 at 17:33








          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          oh...i get it ..thanks...
          $endgroup$
          – jane
          Feb 3 at 17:33




          $begingroup$
          oh...i get it ..thanks...
          $endgroup$
          – jane
          Feb 3 at 17:33


















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