Finding expectation using cumulative distribution function.












1












$begingroup$



$ F(x) = begin{cases} 0 & x < -2\ .2& -2 le x< 0 \ .5 & 0
le x <2.2 &\ .6 & 2.2 le x <3 \.9&3 le x<4 \ 1 &
xge4end{cases}$



Find $E(X)$




I am trying to use this formula $E(X)=sum_{x>0}(1-F(x))-sum_{x<0}(F(x))$



$bigg((1-.5)+(1-.6)+(1-.9)+(1-1)bigg)-bigg(.2bigg)=.5+.4+.1-.2=.8$



But this is wrong, answer given is different. Can anyone point out my mistake?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$



    $ F(x) = begin{cases} 0 & x < -2\ .2& -2 le x< 0 \ .5 & 0
    le x <2.2 &\ .6 & 2.2 le x <3 \.9&3 le x<4 \ 1 &
    xge4end{cases}$



    Find $E(X)$




    I am trying to use this formula $E(X)=sum_{x>0}(1-F(x))-sum_{x<0}(F(x))$



    $bigg((1-.5)+(1-.6)+(1-.9)+(1-1)bigg)-bigg(.2bigg)=.5+.4+.1-.2=.8$



    But this is wrong, answer given is different. Can anyone point out my mistake?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$



      $ F(x) = begin{cases} 0 & x < -2\ .2& -2 le x< 0 \ .5 & 0
      le x <2.2 &\ .6 & 2.2 le x <3 \.9&3 le x<4 \ 1 &
      xge4end{cases}$



      Find $E(X)$




      I am trying to use this formula $E(X)=sum_{x>0}(1-F(x))-sum_{x<0}(F(x))$



      $bigg((1-.5)+(1-.6)+(1-.9)+(1-1)bigg)-bigg(.2bigg)=.5+.4+.1-.2=.8$



      But this is wrong, answer given is different. Can anyone point out my mistake?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      $ F(x) = begin{cases} 0 & x < -2\ .2& -2 le x< 0 \ .5 & 0
      le x <2.2 &\ .6 & 2.2 le x <3 \.9&3 le x<4 \ 1 &
      xge4end{cases}$



      Find $E(X)$




      I am trying to use this formula $E(X)=sum_{x>0}(1-F(x))-sum_{x<0}(F(x))$



      $bigg((1-.5)+(1-.6)+(1-.9)+(1-1)bigg)-bigg(.2bigg)=.5+.4+.1-.2=.8$



      But this is wrong, answer given is different. Can anyone point out my mistake?







      statistics expected-value






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 26 at 15:43







      Daman deep

















      asked Jan 26 at 15:26









      Daman deepDaman deep

      756419




      756419






















          1 Answer
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          active

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          1












          $begingroup$

          That formula only works when your random variable is confined to the integers, which yours is not (since it can be $2.2$ with positive probability). Instead you can use the formula $E[X]=int_0^infty (1-F(x)) dx - int_{-infty}^0 F(x) dx$. This formula holds for general $X$ provided that the subtraction makes sense (i.e. you don't have $infty-infty$). The formula you wrote is obtained if you split the integrals into the intervals $[n,n+1)$ for integers $n$, provided that $F$ is always constant on such intervals (which again is not the case here).



          You can also just write down the PMF and use the usual sum over all possible values. The PMF will be $p(x)=lim_{y to x^+} F(x)-lim_{y to x^-} F(x)$ for all $x$ where $F$ has a jump.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Could you let us know the PMF method? I will delete mine.
            $endgroup$
            – Satish Ramanathan
            Jan 26 at 16:19










          • $begingroup$
            Converting into PMF then the calculating $E(X)$ method I know I wanted to know what is the issue in the formula I wrote. Thanks for clearing my doubt.
            $endgroup$
            – Daman deep
            Jan 26 at 16:20










          • $begingroup$
            I just posted a question regarding same concept can you take a look ?
            $endgroup$
            – Daman deep
            Feb 8 at 4:28











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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          1












          $begingroup$

          That formula only works when your random variable is confined to the integers, which yours is not (since it can be $2.2$ with positive probability). Instead you can use the formula $E[X]=int_0^infty (1-F(x)) dx - int_{-infty}^0 F(x) dx$. This formula holds for general $X$ provided that the subtraction makes sense (i.e. you don't have $infty-infty$). The formula you wrote is obtained if you split the integrals into the intervals $[n,n+1)$ for integers $n$, provided that $F$ is always constant on such intervals (which again is not the case here).



          You can also just write down the PMF and use the usual sum over all possible values. The PMF will be $p(x)=lim_{y to x^+} F(x)-lim_{y to x^-} F(x)$ for all $x$ where $F$ has a jump.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Could you let us know the PMF method? I will delete mine.
            $endgroup$
            – Satish Ramanathan
            Jan 26 at 16:19










          • $begingroup$
            Converting into PMF then the calculating $E(X)$ method I know I wanted to know what is the issue in the formula I wrote. Thanks for clearing my doubt.
            $endgroup$
            – Daman deep
            Jan 26 at 16:20










          • $begingroup$
            I just posted a question regarding same concept can you take a look ?
            $endgroup$
            – Daman deep
            Feb 8 at 4:28
















          1












          $begingroup$

          That formula only works when your random variable is confined to the integers, which yours is not (since it can be $2.2$ with positive probability). Instead you can use the formula $E[X]=int_0^infty (1-F(x)) dx - int_{-infty}^0 F(x) dx$. This formula holds for general $X$ provided that the subtraction makes sense (i.e. you don't have $infty-infty$). The formula you wrote is obtained if you split the integrals into the intervals $[n,n+1)$ for integers $n$, provided that $F$ is always constant on such intervals (which again is not the case here).



          You can also just write down the PMF and use the usual sum over all possible values. The PMF will be $p(x)=lim_{y to x^+} F(x)-lim_{y to x^-} F(x)$ for all $x$ where $F$ has a jump.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Could you let us know the PMF method? I will delete mine.
            $endgroup$
            – Satish Ramanathan
            Jan 26 at 16:19










          • $begingroup$
            Converting into PMF then the calculating $E(X)$ method I know I wanted to know what is the issue in the formula I wrote. Thanks for clearing my doubt.
            $endgroup$
            – Daman deep
            Jan 26 at 16:20










          • $begingroup$
            I just posted a question regarding same concept can you take a look ?
            $endgroup$
            – Daman deep
            Feb 8 at 4:28














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          That formula only works when your random variable is confined to the integers, which yours is not (since it can be $2.2$ with positive probability). Instead you can use the formula $E[X]=int_0^infty (1-F(x)) dx - int_{-infty}^0 F(x) dx$. This formula holds for general $X$ provided that the subtraction makes sense (i.e. you don't have $infty-infty$). The formula you wrote is obtained if you split the integrals into the intervals $[n,n+1)$ for integers $n$, provided that $F$ is always constant on such intervals (which again is not the case here).



          You can also just write down the PMF and use the usual sum over all possible values. The PMF will be $p(x)=lim_{y to x^+} F(x)-lim_{y to x^-} F(x)$ for all $x$ where $F$ has a jump.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          That formula only works when your random variable is confined to the integers, which yours is not (since it can be $2.2$ with positive probability). Instead you can use the formula $E[X]=int_0^infty (1-F(x)) dx - int_{-infty}^0 F(x) dx$. This formula holds for general $X$ provided that the subtraction makes sense (i.e. you don't have $infty-infty$). The formula you wrote is obtained if you split the integrals into the intervals $[n,n+1)$ for integers $n$, provided that $F$ is always constant on such intervals (which again is not the case here).



          You can also just write down the PMF and use the usual sum over all possible values. The PMF will be $p(x)=lim_{y to x^+} F(x)-lim_{y to x^-} F(x)$ for all $x$ where $F$ has a jump.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 26 at 16:21

























          answered Jan 26 at 16:12









          IanIan

          68.8k25392




          68.8k25392












          • $begingroup$
            Could you let us know the PMF method? I will delete mine.
            $endgroup$
            – Satish Ramanathan
            Jan 26 at 16:19










          • $begingroup$
            Converting into PMF then the calculating $E(X)$ method I know I wanted to know what is the issue in the formula I wrote. Thanks for clearing my doubt.
            $endgroup$
            – Daman deep
            Jan 26 at 16:20










          • $begingroup$
            I just posted a question regarding same concept can you take a look ?
            $endgroup$
            – Daman deep
            Feb 8 at 4:28


















          • $begingroup$
            Could you let us know the PMF method? I will delete mine.
            $endgroup$
            – Satish Ramanathan
            Jan 26 at 16:19










          • $begingroup$
            Converting into PMF then the calculating $E(X)$ method I know I wanted to know what is the issue in the formula I wrote. Thanks for clearing my doubt.
            $endgroup$
            – Daman deep
            Jan 26 at 16:20










          • $begingroup$
            I just posted a question regarding same concept can you take a look ?
            $endgroup$
            – Daman deep
            Feb 8 at 4:28
















          $begingroup$
          Could you let us know the PMF method? I will delete mine.
          $endgroup$
          – Satish Ramanathan
          Jan 26 at 16:19




          $begingroup$
          Could you let us know the PMF method? I will delete mine.
          $endgroup$
          – Satish Ramanathan
          Jan 26 at 16:19












          $begingroup$
          Converting into PMF then the calculating $E(X)$ method I know I wanted to know what is the issue in the formula I wrote. Thanks for clearing my doubt.
          $endgroup$
          – Daman deep
          Jan 26 at 16:20




          $begingroup$
          Converting into PMF then the calculating $E(X)$ method I know I wanted to know what is the issue in the formula I wrote. Thanks for clearing my doubt.
          $endgroup$
          – Daman deep
          Jan 26 at 16:20












          $begingroup$
          I just posted a question regarding same concept can you take a look ?
          $endgroup$
          – Daman deep
          Feb 8 at 4:28




          $begingroup$
          I just posted a question regarding same concept can you take a look ?
          $endgroup$
          – Daman deep
          Feb 8 at 4:28


















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