Finding the law of X - Y when X and Y are not independent












1












$begingroup$


I have the following joint density: $$ f_{X,Y}(x,y) =frac{2}{(1+x)^3} (0<y<x) $$



I want to find the density of X - Y. Now, I found that $f_X(x) = frac{1}{x} (0<x<infty)$ and $ f_Y(y) = mathbb{1} (0,x)$, so X and Y are not independent.



I want to use the following formula that gives me the density function of Z = X + Y:



$$ f_Z(z) = int f_{X,Y}(x,z-x)dx $$



However I am not sure how should I change it to get the density of X - Y. I tried using $x - z$ instead of $z-x$ but it does not work.



Any hint?










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$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    I have the following joint density: $$ f_{X,Y}(x,y) =frac{2}{(1+x)^3} (0<y<x) $$



    I want to find the density of X - Y. Now, I found that $f_X(x) = frac{1}{x} (0<x<infty)$ and $ f_Y(y) = mathbb{1} (0,x)$, so X and Y are not independent.



    I want to use the following formula that gives me the density function of Z = X + Y:



    $$ f_Z(z) = int f_{X,Y}(x,z-x)dx $$



    However I am not sure how should I change it to get the density of X - Y. I tried using $x - z$ instead of $z-x$ but it does not work.



    Any hint?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I have the following joint density: $$ f_{X,Y}(x,y) =frac{2}{(1+x)^3} (0<y<x) $$



      I want to find the density of X - Y. Now, I found that $f_X(x) = frac{1}{x} (0<x<infty)$ and $ f_Y(y) = mathbb{1} (0,x)$, so X and Y are not independent.



      I want to use the following formula that gives me the density function of Z = X + Y:



      $$ f_Z(z) = int f_{X,Y}(x,z-x)dx $$



      However I am not sure how should I change it to get the density of X - Y. I tried using $x - z$ instead of $z-x$ but it does not work.



      Any hint?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I have the following joint density: $$ f_{X,Y}(x,y) =frac{2}{(1+x)^3} (0<y<x) $$



      I want to find the density of X - Y. Now, I found that $f_X(x) = frac{1}{x} (0<x<infty)$ and $ f_Y(y) = mathbb{1} (0,x)$, so X and Y are not independent.



      I want to use the following formula that gives me the density function of Z = X + Y:



      $$ f_Z(z) = int f_{X,Y}(x,z-x)dx $$



      However I am not sure how should I change it to get the density of X - Y. I tried using $x - z$ instead of $z-x$ but it does not work.



      Any hint?







      probability density-function






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      share|cite|improve this question











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      asked Jan 26 at 12:39









      qcc101qcc101

      627213




      627213






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          No need to write down marginal densities. $P(X-Yleq t) =int _0^{infty} int _y ^{y+t} frac 2 {(1+x)^{3}} dx dy=1-frac 1 {1+t}$ for $t geq 0$ and $0$ for $t <0$. Hence the density of $X-Y$ is $frac 1 {(1+t)^{2}}, 0<t<infty$. [ To get the limits for integration note that When $t >0$, $x-y < t$ and $0 <y<x$ are equivalent to $y<x<y+t$ and $ x >0$






          share|cite|improve this answer









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          • $begingroup$
            I see. Can I say that X - Y and Y are not independent even though they have the same law because X and Y are not independent?
            $endgroup$
            – qcc101
            Jan 26 at 13:28











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          1 Answer
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          active

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          No need to write down marginal densities. $P(X-Yleq t) =int _0^{infty} int _y ^{y+t} frac 2 {(1+x)^{3}} dx dy=1-frac 1 {1+t}$ for $t geq 0$ and $0$ for $t <0$. Hence the density of $X-Y$ is $frac 1 {(1+t)^{2}}, 0<t<infty$. [ To get the limits for integration note that When $t >0$, $x-y < t$ and $0 <y<x$ are equivalent to $y<x<y+t$ and $ x >0$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I see. Can I say that X - Y and Y are not independent even though they have the same law because X and Y are not independent?
            $endgroup$
            – qcc101
            Jan 26 at 13:28
















          1












          $begingroup$

          No need to write down marginal densities. $P(X-Yleq t) =int _0^{infty} int _y ^{y+t} frac 2 {(1+x)^{3}} dx dy=1-frac 1 {1+t}$ for $t geq 0$ and $0$ for $t <0$. Hence the density of $X-Y$ is $frac 1 {(1+t)^{2}}, 0<t<infty$. [ To get the limits for integration note that When $t >0$, $x-y < t$ and $0 <y<x$ are equivalent to $y<x<y+t$ and $ x >0$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            I see. Can I say that X - Y and Y are not independent even though they have the same law because X and Y are not independent?
            $endgroup$
            – qcc101
            Jan 26 at 13:28














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          No need to write down marginal densities. $P(X-Yleq t) =int _0^{infty} int _y ^{y+t} frac 2 {(1+x)^{3}} dx dy=1-frac 1 {1+t}$ for $t geq 0$ and $0$ for $t <0$. Hence the density of $X-Y$ is $frac 1 {(1+t)^{2}}, 0<t<infty$. [ To get the limits for integration note that When $t >0$, $x-y < t$ and $0 <y<x$ are equivalent to $y<x<y+t$ and $ x >0$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          No need to write down marginal densities. $P(X-Yleq t) =int _0^{infty} int _y ^{y+t} frac 2 {(1+x)^{3}} dx dy=1-frac 1 {1+t}$ for $t geq 0$ and $0$ for $t <0$. Hence the density of $X-Y$ is $frac 1 {(1+t)^{2}}, 0<t<infty$. [ To get the limits for integration note that When $t >0$, $x-y < t$ and $0 <y<x$ are equivalent to $y<x<y+t$ and $ x >0$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 26 at 12:57









          Kavi Rama MurthyKavi Rama Murthy

          69k53169




          69k53169












          • $begingroup$
            I see. Can I say that X - Y and Y are not independent even though they have the same law because X and Y are not independent?
            $endgroup$
            – qcc101
            Jan 26 at 13:28


















          • $begingroup$
            I see. Can I say that X - Y and Y are not independent even though they have the same law because X and Y are not independent?
            $endgroup$
            – qcc101
            Jan 26 at 13:28
















          $begingroup$
          I see. Can I say that X - Y and Y are not independent even though they have the same law because X and Y are not independent?
          $endgroup$
          – qcc101
          Jan 26 at 13:28




          $begingroup$
          I see. Can I say that X - Y and Y are not independent even though they have the same law because X and Y are not independent?
          $endgroup$
          – qcc101
          Jan 26 at 13:28


















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