The assertion : A implies non(A), is it false?












0












$begingroup$


I have proved that $(1) ; A to B.$



But I want prove that:



$(2); B to neg A.$



From (2), is (2) a false assertion? Because if (2) is true, this means that:



$A to neg A = lnot A lor lnot A equiv lnot A$ is true.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    If (1) and (2) are correct then (3) is also correct by transitivity of implication, which would suggest A is false
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Jan 25 at 12:06












  • $begingroup$
    If $A$ is false then $A to B$, $Bto lnot A$ and $A to lnot A$ will all be true. But $A to lnot A$ can only be true if $A$ is false. If you have successfully proven $A to B$, I do not know if you can successfully prove $B to lnot A$, but if you can you will have successfully proven $lnot A$.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Jan 25 at 16:55
















0












$begingroup$


I have proved that $(1) ; A to B.$



But I want prove that:



$(2); B to neg A.$



From (2), is (2) a false assertion? Because if (2) is true, this means that:



$A to neg A = lnot A lor lnot A equiv lnot A$ is true.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    If (1) and (2) are correct then (3) is also correct by transitivity of implication, which would suggest A is false
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Jan 25 at 12:06












  • $begingroup$
    If $A$ is false then $A to B$, $Bto lnot A$ and $A to lnot A$ will all be true. But $A to lnot A$ can only be true if $A$ is false. If you have successfully proven $A to B$, I do not know if you can successfully prove $B to lnot A$, but if you can you will have successfully proven $lnot A$.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Jan 25 at 16:55














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I have proved that $(1) ; A to B.$



But I want prove that:



$(2); B to neg A.$



From (2), is (2) a false assertion? Because if (2) is true, this means that:



$A to neg A = lnot A lor lnot A equiv lnot A$ is true.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I have proved that $(1) ; A to B.$



But I want prove that:



$(2); B to neg A.$



From (2), is (2) a false assertion? Because if (2) is true, this means that:



$A to neg A = lnot A lor lnot A equiv lnot A$ is true.







logic propositional-calculus






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 25 at 16:42









Namaste

1




1










asked Jan 25 at 12:00









Martin LutherMartin Luther

11




11












  • $begingroup$
    If (1) and (2) are correct then (3) is also correct by transitivity of implication, which would suggest A is false
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Jan 25 at 12:06












  • $begingroup$
    If $A$ is false then $A to B$, $Bto lnot A$ and $A to lnot A$ will all be true. But $A to lnot A$ can only be true if $A$ is false. If you have successfully proven $A to B$, I do not know if you can successfully prove $B to lnot A$, but if you can you will have successfully proven $lnot A$.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Jan 25 at 16:55


















  • $begingroup$
    If (1) and (2) are correct then (3) is also correct by transitivity of implication, which would suggest A is false
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Jan 25 at 12:06












  • $begingroup$
    If $A$ is false then $A to B$, $Bto lnot A$ and $A to lnot A$ will all be true. But $A to lnot A$ can only be true if $A$ is false. If you have successfully proven $A to B$, I do not know if you can successfully prove $B to lnot A$, but if you can you will have successfully proven $lnot A$.
    $endgroup$
    – fleablood
    Jan 25 at 16:55
















$begingroup$
If (1) and (2) are correct then (3) is also correct by transitivity of implication, which would suggest A is false
$endgroup$
– Henry
Jan 25 at 12:06






$begingroup$
If (1) and (2) are correct then (3) is also correct by transitivity of implication, which would suggest A is false
$endgroup$
– Henry
Jan 25 at 12:06














$begingroup$
If $A$ is false then $A to B$, $Bto lnot A$ and $A to lnot A$ will all be true. But $A to lnot A$ can only be true if $A$ is false. If you have successfully proven $A to B$, I do not know if you can successfully prove $B to lnot A$, but if you can you will have successfully proven $lnot A$.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Jan 25 at 16:55




$begingroup$
If $A$ is false then $A to B$, $Bto lnot A$ and $A to lnot A$ will all be true. But $A to lnot A$ can only be true if $A$ is false. If you have successfully proven $A to B$, I do not know if you can successfully prove $B to lnot A$, but if you can you will have successfully proven $lnot A$.
$endgroup$
– fleablood
Jan 25 at 16:55










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















0












$begingroup$

So we start with the proven implication:



begin{align*}
&A Rightarrow B \
end{align*}



We then consider the new implications:



begin{align*}
B Rightarrow !A\
A Rightarrow !A \
end{align*}



This proves that A has to be False, because False statements can imply True statements, but True statements cannot imply False statements.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    False statements can imply true statements, so if A is false then there is no fallacy
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Jan 25 at 12:06












  • $begingroup$
    @Henry That is true, but the same statement can only be true or false, and here A has to be both true and false.
    $endgroup$
    – Gustav
    Jan 25 at 12:07












  • $begingroup$
    No. You can't conclude $B$ from $Ato B$ if $A$ is false. So $Ato lnot A$ isn't a fallacy, it's a proof that $A$ is false.
    $endgroup$
    – MJD
    Jan 25 at 12:18












  • $begingroup$
    @MJD That is true, but he does not say that he has B. He says that B implies not A.
    $endgroup$
    – Gustav
    Jan 25 at 12:25










  • $begingroup$
    @MJD You are right. I thought I knew how this all worked, guess not. Do you want to add this as an answer, or should I add it to my answer?
    $endgroup$
    – Gustav
    Jan 25 at 12:30



















0












$begingroup$


From (2), is (2) a false assertion? Because if (2) is true, this means that:



A→¬A=¬A∨¬A≡¬A
is true.




Why would proving $lnot A$ be a contradiction? Were you told that $A$ had to be true?



....



If not, then proving $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$ will prove that $A$ is false. Which isn't a contradiction.



Notice $P to Q$ and $P to lnot Q$ is not a contradiction. The can both be true but they are both true if and only if $P$ is false.



Likewise $P to lnot P$ is also not a contradiction. It will be true if and only $P$ is false.



So $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$ will have proven $A to lnot A$ which isn't a contradiction if $A$ is false. However if you prove that both $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$, that that is a proof that $A$ is false



The following may be useful:



$P to lnot P iff lnot P$



$P to Q iff lnot Q to lnot P$



$(Pto Q)land (Pto lnot Q) iff lnot Q$



$(P to Q) land (lnot P to Q)iff Q$



$(P to Q) land (Q to lnot P) iff lnot P$.



etc.



Also if $Q$ is true then $X to Q$ is always true.



And if $P$ is false then $P to X$ is always true.



So for any $X$ then $A to X$ and $Xto lnot A$ will be consistent and will both be true whenever $A$ is false (but if $A$ is true then one will be true and the other false depending upon whether $X$ is true or false.)






share|cite|improve this answer









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    2 Answers
    2






    active

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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    0












    $begingroup$

    So we start with the proven implication:



    begin{align*}
    &A Rightarrow B \
    end{align*}



    We then consider the new implications:



    begin{align*}
    B Rightarrow !A\
    A Rightarrow !A \
    end{align*}



    This proves that A has to be False, because False statements can imply True statements, but True statements cannot imply False statements.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      False statements can imply true statements, so if A is false then there is no fallacy
      $endgroup$
      – Henry
      Jan 25 at 12:06












    • $begingroup$
      @Henry That is true, but the same statement can only be true or false, and here A has to be both true and false.
      $endgroup$
      – Gustav
      Jan 25 at 12:07












    • $begingroup$
      No. You can't conclude $B$ from $Ato B$ if $A$ is false. So $Ato lnot A$ isn't a fallacy, it's a proof that $A$ is false.
      $endgroup$
      – MJD
      Jan 25 at 12:18












    • $begingroup$
      @MJD That is true, but he does not say that he has B. He says that B implies not A.
      $endgroup$
      – Gustav
      Jan 25 at 12:25










    • $begingroup$
      @MJD You are right. I thought I knew how this all worked, guess not. Do you want to add this as an answer, or should I add it to my answer?
      $endgroup$
      – Gustav
      Jan 25 at 12:30
















    0












    $begingroup$

    So we start with the proven implication:



    begin{align*}
    &A Rightarrow B \
    end{align*}



    We then consider the new implications:



    begin{align*}
    B Rightarrow !A\
    A Rightarrow !A \
    end{align*}



    This proves that A has to be False, because False statements can imply True statements, but True statements cannot imply False statements.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      False statements can imply true statements, so if A is false then there is no fallacy
      $endgroup$
      – Henry
      Jan 25 at 12:06












    • $begingroup$
      @Henry That is true, but the same statement can only be true or false, and here A has to be both true and false.
      $endgroup$
      – Gustav
      Jan 25 at 12:07












    • $begingroup$
      No. You can't conclude $B$ from $Ato B$ if $A$ is false. So $Ato lnot A$ isn't a fallacy, it's a proof that $A$ is false.
      $endgroup$
      – MJD
      Jan 25 at 12:18












    • $begingroup$
      @MJD That is true, but he does not say that he has B. He says that B implies not A.
      $endgroup$
      – Gustav
      Jan 25 at 12:25










    • $begingroup$
      @MJD You are right. I thought I knew how this all worked, guess not. Do you want to add this as an answer, or should I add it to my answer?
      $endgroup$
      – Gustav
      Jan 25 at 12:30














    0












    0








    0





    $begingroup$

    So we start with the proven implication:



    begin{align*}
    &A Rightarrow B \
    end{align*}



    We then consider the new implications:



    begin{align*}
    B Rightarrow !A\
    A Rightarrow !A \
    end{align*}



    This proves that A has to be False, because False statements can imply True statements, but True statements cannot imply False statements.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$



    So we start with the proven implication:



    begin{align*}
    &A Rightarrow B \
    end{align*}



    We then consider the new implications:



    begin{align*}
    B Rightarrow !A\
    A Rightarrow !A \
    end{align*}



    This proves that A has to be False, because False statements can imply True statements, but True statements cannot imply False statements.







    share|cite|improve this answer














    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Jan 25 at 12:38

























    answered Jan 25 at 12:06









    GustavGustav

    1469




    1469












    • $begingroup$
      False statements can imply true statements, so if A is false then there is no fallacy
      $endgroup$
      – Henry
      Jan 25 at 12:06












    • $begingroup$
      @Henry That is true, but the same statement can only be true or false, and here A has to be both true and false.
      $endgroup$
      – Gustav
      Jan 25 at 12:07












    • $begingroup$
      No. You can't conclude $B$ from $Ato B$ if $A$ is false. So $Ato lnot A$ isn't a fallacy, it's a proof that $A$ is false.
      $endgroup$
      – MJD
      Jan 25 at 12:18












    • $begingroup$
      @MJD That is true, but he does not say that he has B. He says that B implies not A.
      $endgroup$
      – Gustav
      Jan 25 at 12:25










    • $begingroup$
      @MJD You are right. I thought I knew how this all worked, guess not. Do you want to add this as an answer, or should I add it to my answer?
      $endgroup$
      – Gustav
      Jan 25 at 12:30


















    • $begingroup$
      False statements can imply true statements, so if A is false then there is no fallacy
      $endgroup$
      – Henry
      Jan 25 at 12:06












    • $begingroup$
      @Henry That is true, but the same statement can only be true or false, and here A has to be both true and false.
      $endgroup$
      – Gustav
      Jan 25 at 12:07












    • $begingroup$
      No. You can't conclude $B$ from $Ato B$ if $A$ is false. So $Ato lnot A$ isn't a fallacy, it's a proof that $A$ is false.
      $endgroup$
      – MJD
      Jan 25 at 12:18












    • $begingroup$
      @MJD That is true, but he does not say that he has B. He says that B implies not A.
      $endgroup$
      – Gustav
      Jan 25 at 12:25










    • $begingroup$
      @MJD You are right. I thought I knew how this all worked, guess not. Do you want to add this as an answer, or should I add it to my answer?
      $endgroup$
      – Gustav
      Jan 25 at 12:30
















    $begingroup$
    False statements can imply true statements, so if A is false then there is no fallacy
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Jan 25 at 12:06






    $begingroup$
    False statements can imply true statements, so if A is false then there is no fallacy
    $endgroup$
    – Henry
    Jan 25 at 12:06














    $begingroup$
    @Henry That is true, but the same statement can only be true or false, and here A has to be both true and false.
    $endgroup$
    – Gustav
    Jan 25 at 12:07






    $begingroup$
    @Henry That is true, but the same statement can only be true or false, and here A has to be both true and false.
    $endgroup$
    – Gustav
    Jan 25 at 12:07














    $begingroup$
    No. You can't conclude $B$ from $Ato B$ if $A$ is false. So $Ato lnot A$ isn't a fallacy, it's a proof that $A$ is false.
    $endgroup$
    – MJD
    Jan 25 at 12:18






    $begingroup$
    No. You can't conclude $B$ from $Ato B$ if $A$ is false. So $Ato lnot A$ isn't a fallacy, it's a proof that $A$ is false.
    $endgroup$
    – MJD
    Jan 25 at 12:18














    $begingroup$
    @MJD That is true, but he does not say that he has B. He says that B implies not A.
    $endgroup$
    – Gustav
    Jan 25 at 12:25




    $begingroup$
    @MJD That is true, but he does not say that he has B. He says that B implies not A.
    $endgroup$
    – Gustav
    Jan 25 at 12:25












    $begingroup$
    @MJD You are right. I thought I knew how this all worked, guess not. Do you want to add this as an answer, or should I add it to my answer?
    $endgroup$
    – Gustav
    Jan 25 at 12:30




    $begingroup$
    @MJD You are right. I thought I knew how this all worked, guess not. Do you want to add this as an answer, or should I add it to my answer?
    $endgroup$
    – Gustav
    Jan 25 at 12:30











    0












    $begingroup$


    From (2), is (2) a false assertion? Because if (2) is true, this means that:



    A→¬A=¬A∨¬A≡¬A
    is true.




    Why would proving $lnot A$ be a contradiction? Were you told that $A$ had to be true?



    ....



    If not, then proving $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$ will prove that $A$ is false. Which isn't a contradiction.



    Notice $P to Q$ and $P to lnot Q$ is not a contradiction. The can both be true but they are both true if and only if $P$ is false.



    Likewise $P to lnot P$ is also not a contradiction. It will be true if and only $P$ is false.



    So $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$ will have proven $A to lnot A$ which isn't a contradiction if $A$ is false. However if you prove that both $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$, that that is a proof that $A$ is false



    The following may be useful:



    $P to lnot P iff lnot P$



    $P to Q iff lnot Q to lnot P$



    $(Pto Q)land (Pto lnot Q) iff lnot Q$



    $(P to Q) land (lnot P to Q)iff Q$



    $(P to Q) land (Q to lnot P) iff lnot P$.



    etc.



    Also if $Q$ is true then $X to Q$ is always true.



    And if $P$ is false then $P to X$ is always true.



    So for any $X$ then $A to X$ and $Xto lnot A$ will be consistent and will both be true whenever $A$ is false (but if $A$ is true then one will be true and the other false depending upon whether $X$ is true or false.)






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$


      From (2), is (2) a false assertion? Because if (2) is true, this means that:



      A→¬A=¬A∨¬A≡¬A
      is true.




      Why would proving $lnot A$ be a contradiction? Were you told that $A$ had to be true?



      ....



      If not, then proving $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$ will prove that $A$ is false. Which isn't a contradiction.



      Notice $P to Q$ and $P to lnot Q$ is not a contradiction. The can both be true but they are both true if and only if $P$ is false.



      Likewise $P to lnot P$ is also not a contradiction. It will be true if and only $P$ is false.



      So $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$ will have proven $A to lnot A$ which isn't a contradiction if $A$ is false. However if you prove that both $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$, that that is a proof that $A$ is false



      The following may be useful:



      $P to lnot P iff lnot P$



      $P to Q iff lnot Q to lnot P$



      $(Pto Q)land (Pto lnot Q) iff lnot Q$



      $(P to Q) land (lnot P to Q)iff Q$



      $(P to Q) land (Q to lnot P) iff lnot P$.



      etc.



      Also if $Q$ is true then $X to Q$ is always true.



      And if $P$ is false then $P to X$ is always true.



      So for any $X$ then $A to X$ and $Xto lnot A$ will be consistent and will both be true whenever $A$ is false (but if $A$ is true then one will be true and the other false depending upon whether $X$ is true or false.)






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$


        From (2), is (2) a false assertion? Because if (2) is true, this means that:



        A→¬A=¬A∨¬A≡¬A
        is true.




        Why would proving $lnot A$ be a contradiction? Were you told that $A$ had to be true?



        ....



        If not, then proving $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$ will prove that $A$ is false. Which isn't a contradiction.



        Notice $P to Q$ and $P to lnot Q$ is not a contradiction. The can both be true but they are both true if and only if $P$ is false.



        Likewise $P to lnot P$ is also not a contradiction. It will be true if and only $P$ is false.



        So $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$ will have proven $A to lnot A$ which isn't a contradiction if $A$ is false. However if you prove that both $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$, that that is a proof that $A$ is false



        The following may be useful:



        $P to lnot P iff lnot P$



        $P to Q iff lnot Q to lnot P$



        $(Pto Q)land (Pto lnot Q) iff lnot Q$



        $(P to Q) land (lnot P to Q)iff Q$



        $(P to Q) land (Q to lnot P) iff lnot P$.



        etc.



        Also if $Q$ is true then $X to Q$ is always true.



        And if $P$ is false then $P to X$ is always true.



        So for any $X$ then $A to X$ and $Xto lnot A$ will be consistent and will both be true whenever $A$ is false (but if $A$ is true then one will be true and the other false depending upon whether $X$ is true or false.)






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$




        From (2), is (2) a false assertion? Because if (2) is true, this means that:



        A→¬A=¬A∨¬A≡¬A
        is true.




        Why would proving $lnot A$ be a contradiction? Were you told that $A$ had to be true?



        ....



        If not, then proving $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$ will prove that $A$ is false. Which isn't a contradiction.



        Notice $P to Q$ and $P to lnot Q$ is not a contradiction. The can both be true but they are both true if and only if $P$ is false.



        Likewise $P to lnot P$ is also not a contradiction. It will be true if and only $P$ is false.



        So $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$ will have proven $A to lnot A$ which isn't a contradiction if $A$ is false. However if you prove that both $A to B$ and $B to lnot A$, that that is a proof that $A$ is false



        The following may be useful:



        $P to lnot P iff lnot P$



        $P to Q iff lnot Q to lnot P$



        $(Pto Q)land (Pto lnot Q) iff lnot Q$



        $(P to Q) land (lnot P to Q)iff Q$



        $(P to Q) land (Q to lnot P) iff lnot P$.



        etc.



        Also if $Q$ is true then $X to Q$ is always true.



        And if $P$ is false then $P to X$ is always true.



        So for any $X$ then $A to X$ and $Xto lnot A$ will be consistent and will both be true whenever $A$ is false (but if $A$ is true then one will be true and the other false depending upon whether $X$ is true or false.)







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 25 at 17:30









        fleabloodfleablood

        72.8k22788




        72.8k22788






























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