If $a in L-k $ satisfies $k(a^n)=L$ (for all $n geq 1$), then $L/k$ is Galois?












0












$begingroup$


Let $k subsetneq L$ be a finite separable field extension, and let $a in L-k$ satisfy: For every $n geq 1$, $k(a^n)=L$.



In other words, all the non-zero powers of the primitive element $a$ are also primitive elements.




Is there something interesting to say about such an extension? Should it be Galois?




Partial answer: According to this question, if the extension is of prime degree, and if there exist infinitely many $m$'s such that $k(b^m) neq L=k(b)$, then $k subsetneq L$ is not Galois.



But I am asking about the opposite direction, namely, if only finitely many (= more precisely, zero) $2 leq m$'s are such that $k(b^m) subsetneq k(b)=L$, then $k subseteq L$ is Galois? Can we reverse the argument in that question?





Special case $k=mathbb{Q}$: Can one find $a in bar{mathbb{Q}}-mathbb{Q}$
satisfying $mathbb{Q}(a)=mathbb{Q}(a^2)=mathbb{Q}(a^3)=ldots$?



The following are two non-examples for $k=mathbb{Q}$:



(1) In the spirit of the comment for this question, notice that here taking $a=p^{frac{1}{m}}$ for some (positive) prime $p geq 2$ and fixed $m geq 2$ will not help, since $a^m=(p^{frac{1}{m}})^m=p$ so $mathbb{Q}(a^m)=mathbb{Q}(p)=mathbb{Q} subsetneq mathbb{Q}(a)$.



(2) $a=frac{-1+sqrt{3}i}{2}$ will not help; indeed, $a^2+a+1=0$,
so $a^2=-a-1$, then $a^3=-a^2-a=-(-a-1)-a=1$, so $mathbb{Q}(a^3)=mathbb{Q}(1)=mathbb{Q} subsetneq mathbb{Q}(a)$.



Any hints are welcome!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A simple example take $a=1+sqrt{2}$
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 3 at 16:26










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, of course.. thank you. Is it true that also any $a=1+p^{frac{1}{m}}$ will work, where $p geq 2$ is prime and $m geq 2$? (Perhaps one has to be careful, and not all such $p$ and $m$ will work).
    $endgroup$
    – user237522
    Jan 3 at 16:36










  • $begingroup$
    No It won't. As you explained in you question.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 3 at 16:41










  • $begingroup$
    @mouthetics, please, is it possible to find $b in mathbb{Q}(sqrt{2})$ such that: $mathbb{Q}(b^n)=mathbb{Q}(sqrt{2})$ (for all $n geq 2$), and also $b-a notin mathbb{Q}$?
    $endgroup$
    – user237522
    Jan 3 at 16:43












  • $begingroup$
    Well, $b=1+2sqrt2$ =)
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Lau
    Jan 3 at 18:15
















0












$begingroup$


Let $k subsetneq L$ be a finite separable field extension, and let $a in L-k$ satisfy: For every $n geq 1$, $k(a^n)=L$.



In other words, all the non-zero powers of the primitive element $a$ are also primitive elements.




Is there something interesting to say about such an extension? Should it be Galois?




Partial answer: According to this question, if the extension is of prime degree, and if there exist infinitely many $m$'s such that $k(b^m) neq L=k(b)$, then $k subsetneq L$ is not Galois.



But I am asking about the opposite direction, namely, if only finitely many (= more precisely, zero) $2 leq m$'s are such that $k(b^m) subsetneq k(b)=L$, then $k subseteq L$ is Galois? Can we reverse the argument in that question?





Special case $k=mathbb{Q}$: Can one find $a in bar{mathbb{Q}}-mathbb{Q}$
satisfying $mathbb{Q}(a)=mathbb{Q}(a^2)=mathbb{Q}(a^3)=ldots$?



The following are two non-examples for $k=mathbb{Q}$:



(1) In the spirit of the comment for this question, notice that here taking $a=p^{frac{1}{m}}$ for some (positive) prime $p geq 2$ and fixed $m geq 2$ will not help, since $a^m=(p^{frac{1}{m}})^m=p$ so $mathbb{Q}(a^m)=mathbb{Q}(p)=mathbb{Q} subsetneq mathbb{Q}(a)$.



(2) $a=frac{-1+sqrt{3}i}{2}$ will not help; indeed, $a^2+a+1=0$,
so $a^2=-a-1$, then $a^3=-a^2-a=-(-a-1)-a=1$, so $mathbb{Q}(a^3)=mathbb{Q}(1)=mathbb{Q} subsetneq mathbb{Q}(a)$.



Any hints are welcome!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A simple example take $a=1+sqrt{2}$
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 3 at 16:26










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, of course.. thank you. Is it true that also any $a=1+p^{frac{1}{m}}$ will work, where $p geq 2$ is prime and $m geq 2$? (Perhaps one has to be careful, and not all such $p$ and $m$ will work).
    $endgroup$
    – user237522
    Jan 3 at 16:36










  • $begingroup$
    No It won't. As you explained in you question.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 3 at 16:41










  • $begingroup$
    @mouthetics, please, is it possible to find $b in mathbb{Q}(sqrt{2})$ such that: $mathbb{Q}(b^n)=mathbb{Q}(sqrt{2})$ (for all $n geq 2$), and also $b-a notin mathbb{Q}$?
    $endgroup$
    – user237522
    Jan 3 at 16:43












  • $begingroup$
    Well, $b=1+2sqrt2$ =)
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Lau
    Jan 3 at 18:15














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $k subsetneq L$ be a finite separable field extension, and let $a in L-k$ satisfy: For every $n geq 1$, $k(a^n)=L$.



In other words, all the non-zero powers of the primitive element $a$ are also primitive elements.




Is there something interesting to say about such an extension? Should it be Galois?




Partial answer: According to this question, if the extension is of prime degree, and if there exist infinitely many $m$'s such that $k(b^m) neq L=k(b)$, then $k subsetneq L$ is not Galois.



But I am asking about the opposite direction, namely, if only finitely many (= more precisely, zero) $2 leq m$'s are such that $k(b^m) subsetneq k(b)=L$, then $k subseteq L$ is Galois? Can we reverse the argument in that question?





Special case $k=mathbb{Q}$: Can one find $a in bar{mathbb{Q}}-mathbb{Q}$
satisfying $mathbb{Q}(a)=mathbb{Q}(a^2)=mathbb{Q}(a^3)=ldots$?



The following are two non-examples for $k=mathbb{Q}$:



(1) In the spirit of the comment for this question, notice that here taking $a=p^{frac{1}{m}}$ for some (positive) prime $p geq 2$ and fixed $m geq 2$ will not help, since $a^m=(p^{frac{1}{m}})^m=p$ so $mathbb{Q}(a^m)=mathbb{Q}(p)=mathbb{Q} subsetneq mathbb{Q}(a)$.



(2) $a=frac{-1+sqrt{3}i}{2}$ will not help; indeed, $a^2+a+1=0$,
so $a^2=-a-1$, then $a^3=-a^2-a=-(-a-1)-a=1$, so $mathbb{Q}(a^3)=mathbb{Q}(1)=mathbb{Q} subsetneq mathbb{Q}(a)$.



Any hints are welcome!










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $k subsetneq L$ be a finite separable field extension, and let $a in L-k$ satisfy: For every $n geq 1$, $k(a^n)=L$.



In other words, all the non-zero powers of the primitive element $a$ are also primitive elements.




Is there something interesting to say about such an extension? Should it be Galois?




Partial answer: According to this question, if the extension is of prime degree, and if there exist infinitely many $m$'s such that $k(b^m) neq L=k(b)$, then $k subsetneq L$ is not Galois.



But I am asking about the opposite direction, namely, if only finitely many (= more precisely, zero) $2 leq m$'s are such that $k(b^m) subsetneq k(b)=L$, then $k subseteq L$ is Galois? Can we reverse the argument in that question?





Special case $k=mathbb{Q}$: Can one find $a in bar{mathbb{Q}}-mathbb{Q}$
satisfying $mathbb{Q}(a)=mathbb{Q}(a^2)=mathbb{Q}(a^3)=ldots$?



The following are two non-examples for $k=mathbb{Q}$:



(1) In the spirit of the comment for this question, notice that here taking $a=p^{frac{1}{m}}$ for some (positive) prime $p geq 2$ and fixed $m geq 2$ will not help, since $a^m=(p^{frac{1}{m}})^m=p$ so $mathbb{Q}(a^m)=mathbb{Q}(p)=mathbb{Q} subsetneq mathbb{Q}(a)$.



(2) $a=frac{-1+sqrt{3}i}{2}$ will not help; indeed, $a^2+a+1=0$,
so $a^2=-a-1$, then $a^3=-a^2-a=-(-a-1)-a=1$, so $mathbb{Q}(a^3)=mathbb{Q}(1)=mathbb{Q} subsetneq mathbb{Q}(a)$.



Any hints are welcome!







field-theory galois-theory extension-field separable-extension






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 3 at 19:39







user237522

















asked Jan 3 at 16:01









user237522user237522

2,1451617




2,1451617








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A simple example take $a=1+sqrt{2}$
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 3 at 16:26










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, of course.. thank you. Is it true that also any $a=1+p^{frac{1}{m}}$ will work, where $p geq 2$ is prime and $m geq 2$? (Perhaps one has to be careful, and not all such $p$ and $m$ will work).
    $endgroup$
    – user237522
    Jan 3 at 16:36










  • $begingroup$
    No It won't. As you explained in you question.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 3 at 16:41










  • $begingroup$
    @mouthetics, please, is it possible to find $b in mathbb{Q}(sqrt{2})$ such that: $mathbb{Q}(b^n)=mathbb{Q}(sqrt{2})$ (for all $n geq 2$), and also $b-a notin mathbb{Q}$?
    $endgroup$
    – user237522
    Jan 3 at 16:43












  • $begingroup$
    Well, $b=1+2sqrt2$ =)
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Lau
    Jan 3 at 18:15














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    A simple example take $a=1+sqrt{2}$
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 3 at 16:26










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, of course.. thank you. Is it true that also any $a=1+p^{frac{1}{m}}$ will work, where $p geq 2$ is prime and $m geq 2$? (Perhaps one has to be careful, and not all such $p$ and $m$ will work).
    $endgroup$
    – user237522
    Jan 3 at 16:36










  • $begingroup$
    No It won't. As you explained in you question.
    $endgroup$
    – mouthetics
    Jan 3 at 16:41










  • $begingroup$
    @mouthetics, please, is it possible to find $b in mathbb{Q}(sqrt{2})$ such that: $mathbb{Q}(b^n)=mathbb{Q}(sqrt{2})$ (for all $n geq 2$), and also $b-a notin mathbb{Q}$?
    $endgroup$
    – user237522
    Jan 3 at 16:43












  • $begingroup$
    Well, $b=1+2sqrt2$ =)
    $endgroup$
    – Kenny Lau
    Jan 3 at 18:15








1




1




$begingroup$
A simple example take $a=1+sqrt{2}$
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 3 at 16:26




$begingroup$
A simple example take $a=1+sqrt{2}$
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 3 at 16:26












$begingroup$
Oh, of course.. thank you. Is it true that also any $a=1+p^{frac{1}{m}}$ will work, where $p geq 2$ is prime and $m geq 2$? (Perhaps one has to be careful, and not all such $p$ and $m$ will work).
$endgroup$
– user237522
Jan 3 at 16:36




$begingroup$
Oh, of course.. thank you. Is it true that also any $a=1+p^{frac{1}{m}}$ will work, where $p geq 2$ is prime and $m geq 2$? (Perhaps one has to be careful, and not all such $p$ and $m$ will work).
$endgroup$
– user237522
Jan 3 at 16:36












$begingroup$
No It won't. As you explained in you question.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 3 at 16:41




$begingroup$
No It won't. As you explained in you question.
$endgroup$
– mouthetics
Jan 3 at 16:41












$begingroup$
@mouthetics, please, is it possible to find $b in mathbb{Q}(sqrt{2})$ such that: $mathbb{Q}(b^n)=mathbb{Q}(sqrt{2})$ (for all $n geq 2$), and also $b-a notin mathbb{Q}$?
$endgroup$
– user237522
Jan 3 at 16:43






$begingroup$
@mouthetics, please, is it possible to find $b in mathbb{Q}(sqrt{2})$ such that: $mathbb{Q}(b^n)=mathbb{Q}(sqrt{2})$ (for all $n geq 2$), and also $b-a notin mathbb{Q}$?
$endgroup$
– user237522
Jan 3 at 16:43














$begingroup$
Well, $b=1+2sqrt2$ =)
$endgroup$
– Kenny Lau
Jan 3 at 18:15




$begingroup$
Well, $b=1+2sqrt2$ =)
$endgroup$
– Kenny Lau
Jan 3 at 18:15










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