integration inequality over a unit interval [duplicate]












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  • Prove that $ln x leq x - 1$

    4 answers




Let $mgeq 1$ be a natural number. I want to show that $$int_{m}^{m+1}log(frac{t}{m})dt leq int_{m}^{m+1}(frac{t}{m}-1)dt.$$ I have graphed it and can see the result, but don't know how to show it rigorously.










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marked as duplicate by Martin R, Community Jan 8 at 14:36


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.























    0












    $begingroup$



    This question already has an answer here:




    • Prove that $ln x leq x - 1$

      4 answers




    Let $mgeq 1$ be a natural number. I want to show that $$int_{m}^{m+1}log(frac{t}{m})dt leq int_{m}^{m+1}(frac{t}{m}-1)dt.$$ I have graphed it and can see the result, but don't know how to show it rigorously.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$



    marked as duplicate by Martin R, Community Jan 8 at 14:36


    This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.





















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$



      This question already has an answer here:




      • Prove that $ln x leq x - 1$

        4 answers




      Let $mgeq 1$ be a natural number. I want to show that $$int_{m}^{m+1}log(frac{t}{m})dt leq int_{m}^{m+1}(frac{t}{m}-1)dt.$$ I have graphed it and can see the result, but don't know how to show it rigorously.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$





      This question already has an answer here:




      • Prove that $ln x leq x - 1$

        4 answers




      Let $mgeq 1$ be a natural number. I want to show that $$int_{m}^{m+1}log(frac{t}{m})dt leq int_{m}^{m+1}(frac{t}{m}-1)dt.$$ I have graphed it and can see the result, but don't know how to show it rigorously.





      This question already has an answer here:




      • Prove that $ln x leq x - 1$

        4 answers








      integration inequality






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      edited Jan 8 at 13:03









      amWhy

      1




      1










      asked Jan 8 at 12:34









      Sam.SSam.S

      649




      649




      marked as duplicate by Martin R, Community Jan 8 at 14:36


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









      marked as duplicate by Martin R, Community Jan 8 at 14:36


      This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
























          1 Answer
          1






          active

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          1












          $begingroup$

          An answer without calculating the integrals is the following:
          We have
          $$log(frac{t}{m})leq frac{t}{m}-1;;;for ; all;mleq tleq m+1,$$
          hence by the monotonicity of the integral we get the claim.



          (One can see this inequality for example by considering
          $$f(t)=log(frac{t}{m})-frac{t}{m}+1:$$
          Since $f(m)=0$ and $f'(t)<0$ on $[m,m+1]$ (that's an easy calculation), we get
          $$f(t)leq 0;;;on;[m,m+1]$$
          and hence the needed inequality.)






          share|cite|improve this answer











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          • $begingroup$
            ok thanks, this is now clear, although when you define f(t) should you not add 1 at the end, rather than subtract? I can't edit since its only 1 character.
            $endgroup$
            – Sam.S
            Jan 8 at 14:33










          • $begingroup$
            You're right, of course, thank you! I edited it.
            $endgroup$
            – Student7
            Jan 8 at 14:35


















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          1












          $begingroup$

          An answer without calculating the integrals is the following:
          We have
          $$log(frac{t}{m})leq frac{t}{m}-1;;;for ; all;mleq tleq m+1,$$
          hence by the monotonicity of the integral we get the claim.



          (One can see this inequality for example by considering
          $$f(t)=log(frac{t}{m})-frac{t}{m}+1:$$
          Since $f(m)=0$ and $f'(t)<0$ on $[m,m+1]$ (that's an easy calculation), we get
          $$f(t)leq 0;;;on;[m,m+1]$$
          and hence the needed inequality.)






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            ok thanks, this is now clear, although when you define f(t) should you not add 1 at the end, rather than subtract? I can't edit since its only 1 character.
            $endgroup$
            – Sam.S
            Jan 8 at 14:33










          • $begingroup$
            You're right, of course, thank you! I edited it.
            $endgroup$
            – Student7
            Jan 8 at 14:35
















          1












          $begingroup$

          An answer without calculating the integrals is the following:
          We have
          $$log(frac{t}{m})leq frac{t}{m}-1;;;for ; all;mleq tleq m+1,$$
          hence by the monotonicity of the integral we get the claim.



          (One can see this inequality for example by considering
          $$f(t)=log(frac{t}{m})-frac{t}{m}+1:$$
          Since $f(m)=0$ and $f'(t)<0$ on $[m,m+1]$ (that's an easy calculation), we get
          $$f(t)leq 0;;;on;[m,m+1]$$
          and hence the needed inequality.)






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            ok thanks, this is now clear, although when you define f(t) should you not add 1 at the end, rather than subtract? I can't edit since its only 1 character.
            $endgroup$
            – Sam.S
            Jan 8 at 14:33










          • $begingroup$
            You're right, of course, thank you! I edited it.
            $endgroup$
            – Student7
            Jan 8 at 14:35














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          An answer without calculating the integrals is the following:
          We have
          $$log(frac{t}{m})leq frac{t}{m}-1;;;for ; all;mleq tleq m+1,$$
          hence by the monotonicity of the integral we get the claim.



          (One can see this inequality for example by considering
          $$f(t)=log(frac{t}{m})-frac{t}{m}+1:$$
          Since $f(m)=0$ and $f'(t)<0$ on $[m,m+1]$ (that's an easy calculation), we get
          $$f(t)leq 0;;;on;[m,m+1]$$
          and hence the needed inequality.)






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          An answer without calculating the integrals is the following:
          We have
          $$log(frac{t}{m})leq frac{t}{m}-1;;;for ; all;mleq tleq m+1,$$
          hence by the monotonicity of the integral we get the claim.



          (One can see this inequality for example by considering
          $$f(t)=log(frac{t}{m})-frac{t}{m}+1:$$
          Since $f(m)=0$ and $f'(t)<0$ on $[m,m+1]$ (that's an easy calculation), we get
          $$f(t)leq 0;;;on;[m,m+1]$$
          and hence the needed inequality.)







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 8 at 14:35

























          answered Jan 8 at 13:00









          Student7Student7

          2089




          2089












          • $begingroup$
            ok thanks, this is now clear, although when you define f(t) should you not add 1 at the end, rather than subtract? I can't edit since its only 1 character.
            $endgroup$
            – Sam.S
            Jan 8 at 14:33










          • $begingroup$
            You're right, of course, thank you! I edited it.
            $endgroup$
            – Student7
            Jan 8 at 14:35


















          • $begingroup$
            ok thanks, this is now clear, although when you define f(t) should you not add 1 at the end, rather than subtract? I can't edit since its only 1 character.
            $endgroup$
            – Sam.S
            Jan 8 at 14:33










          • $begingroup$
            You're right, of course, thank you! I edited it.
            $endgroup$
            – Student7
            Jan 8 at 14:35
















          $begingroup$
          ok thanks, this is now clear, although when you define f(t) should you not add 1 at the end, rather than subtract? I can't edit since its only 1 character.
          $endgroup$
          – Sam.S
          Jan 8 at 14:33




          $begingroup$
          ok thanks, this is now clear, although when you define f(t) should you not add 1 at the end, rather than subtract? I can't edit since its only 1 character.
          $endgroup$
          – Sam.S
          Jan 8 at 14:33












          $begingroup$
          You're right, of course, thank you! I edited it.
          $endgroup$
          – Student7
          Jan 8 at 14:35




          $begingroup$
          You're right, of course, thank you! I edited it.
          $endgroup$
          – Student7
          Jan 8 at 14:35



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