Prove there is only one subgroup of order $p$












3














Suppose I have a group $G$ of order $|G|=pq, q < p$ where $p,q$ are primes. Also, suppose that $a$ has order $p$, then prove that for any $bnot in langle a rangle$, the order of $b$ is not $p$.



I know there is a way to do it with Sylow's theorems, but since we didn't cover Sylow theorems, I was hoping for another approach perhaps?










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  • $bnot inlangle a rangleRightarrow o(a) nmid o(b)$. So $pnmid o(b) $
    – 1ENİGMA1
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:41












  • @1ENİGMA1 Why??
    – AspiringMat
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:42










  • I don't see why $b not in <a> Rightarrow o(a)|o(b)$ right away?
    – AspiringMat
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:43










  • The claim is false if you only demand $qle p$. Just consider $G=(Bbb Z/pBbb Z)^2$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:43






  • 2




    If $b notin langle a rangle$ and $o(b)=p$, then $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle = {1}$, so $|langle branglelangle a rangle| ge p^2 > |G|$, contradiction.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:51


















3














Suppose I have a group $G$ of order $|G|=pq, q < p$ where $p,q$ are primes. Also, suppose that $a$ has order $p$, then prove that for any $bnot in langle a rangle$, the order of $b$ is not $p$.



I know there is a way to do it with Sylow's theorems, but since we didn't cover Sylow theorems, I was hoping for another approach perhaps?










share|cite|improve this question
























  • $bnot inlangle a rangleRightarrow o(a) nmid o(b)$. So $pnmid o(b) $
    – 1ENİGMA1
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:41












  • @1ENİGMA1 Why??
    – AspiringMat
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:42










  • I don't see why $b not in <a> Rightarrow o(a)|o(b)$ right away?
    – AspiringMat
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:43










  • The claim is false if you only demand $qle p$. Just consider $G=(Bbb Z/pBbb Z)^2$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:43






  • 2




    If $b notin langle a rangle$ and $o(b)=p$, then $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle = {1}$, so $|langle branglelangle a rangle| ge p^2 > |G|$, contradiction.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:51
















3












3








3







Suppose I have a group $G$ of order $|G|=pq, q < p$ where $p,q$ are primes. Also, suppose that $a$ has order $p$, then prove that for any $bnot in langle a rangle$, the order of $b$ is not $p$.



I know there is a way to do it with Sylow's theorems, but since we didn't cover Sylow theorems, I was hoping for another approach perhaps?










share|cite|improve this question















Suppose I have a group $G$ of order $|G|=pq, q < p$ where $p,q$ are primes. Also, suppose that $a$ has order $p$, then prove that for any $bnot in langle a rangle$, the order of $b$ is not $p$.



I know there is a way to do it with Sylow's theorems, but since we didn't cover Sylow theorems, I was hoping for another approach perhaps?







group-theory finite-groups






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share|cite|improve this question








edited Nov 22 '18 at 10:39









the_fox

2,45711431




2,45711431










asked Nov 22 '18 at 7:33









AspiringMatAspiringMat

540518




540518












  • $bnot inlangle a rangleRightarrow o(a) nmid o(b)$. So $pnmid o(b) $
    – 1ENİGMA1
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:41












  • @1ENİGMA1 Why??
    – AspiringMat
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:42










  • I don't see why $b not in <a> Rightarrow o(a)|o(b)$ right away?
    – AspiringMat
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:43










  • The claim is false if you only demand $qle p$. Just consider $G=(Bbb Z/pBbb Z)^2$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:43






  • 2




    If $b notin langle a rangle$ and $o(b)=p$, then $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle = {1}$, so $|langle branglelangle a rangle| ge p^2 > |G|$, contradiction.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:51




















  • $bnot inlangle a rangleRightarrow o(a) nmid o(b)$. So $pnmid o(b) $
    – 1ENİGMA1
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:41












  • @1ENİGMA1 Why??
    – AspiringMat
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:42










  • I don't see why $b not in <a> Rightarrow o(a)|o(b)$ right away?
    – AspiringMat
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:43










  • The claim is false if you only demand $qle p$. Just consider $G=(Bbb Z/pBbb Z)^2$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:43






  • 2




    If $b notin langle a rangle$ and $o(b)=p$, then $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle = {1}$, so $|langle branglelangle a rangle| ge p^2 > |G|$, contradiction.
    – Derek Holt
    Nov 22 '18 at 7:51


















$bnot inlangle a rangleRightarrow o(a) nmid o(b)$. So $pnmid o(b) $
– 1ENİGMA1
Nov 22 '18 at 7:41






$bnot inlangle a rangleRightarrow o(a) nmid o(b)$. So $pnmid o(b) $
– 1ENİGMA1
Nov 22 '18 at 7:41














@1ENİGMA1 Why??
– AspiringMat
Nov 22 '18 at 7:42




@1ENİGMA1 Why??
– AspiringMat
Nov 22 '18 at 7:42












I don't see why $b not in <a> Rightarrow o(a)|o(b)$ right away?
– AspiringMat
Nov 22 '18 at 7:43




I don't see why $b not in <a> Rightarrow o(a)|o(b)$ right away?
– AspiringMat
Nov 22 '18 at 7:43












The claim is false if you only demand $qle p$. Just consider $G=(Bbb Z/pBbb Z)^2$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 22 '18 at 7:43




The claim is false if you only demand $qle p$. Just consider $G=(Bbb Z/pBbb Z)^2$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Nov 22 '18 at 7:43




2




2




If $b notin langle a rangle$ and $o(b)=p$, then $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle = {1}$, so $|langle branglelangle a rangle| ge p^2 > |G|$, contradiction.
– Derek Holt
Nov 22 '18 at 7:51






If $b notin langle a rangle$ and $o(b)=p$, then $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle = {1}$, so $|langle branglelangle a rangle| ge p^2 > |G|$, contradiction.
– Derek Holt
Nov 22 '18 at 7:51












2 Answers
2






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3














I'll make my comment into an answer.



If $b notin langle a rangle$ and $o(b)=p$, then $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle = {1}$, and so $|langle b ranglelangle a rangle|=p^2 > |G|$, contradiction.



Since you are looking for an elementary proof, I will justify the claim that $|langle b ranglelangle a rangle|=p^2$. If not, then there exist $i,j,k,l in [0 .. p-1]$ with $(i,j) ne (k,l)$ and $a^ib^j = a^kb^l$, but then $a^{i-k} = b^{l-j}$ is a nontrivial element of $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle$.



There is a general result that, for finite subgroups $A$ and $B$ of a group $G$, we have $|AB| = |A||B|/|A cap B|$






share|cite|improve this answer





























    1














    More generally, if $q$ is the smallest prime dividing $|G|$, then any subgroup $H$ of index $q$ is normal.$^1$



    Now in the given problem, what can you say about the image of $b$ in $G/langle arangle$?





    $^1$ Namely, $G$ acts by left multiplication on the set $X={,gHmid gin G,}$ of the $q$ cosets, which gives us a homomorphism $phicolon Gto S_q$. Clearly, $kerphisubseteq H$.
    Note that $H$ leaves the point $Hin X$ fixed, hence is in fact mapped by $phi$ into $S_{q-1}$. As $|S_{q-1}|$ is co-prime to $|G|$, we must have $Hsubseteq kerphi$.






    share|cite|improve this answer



















    • 3




      But surely you need to justify your claim that the subgroup of index $q$ is normal.
      – Derek Holt
      Nov 22 '18 at 7:49










    • @DerekHolt This ought to have been shown shortly after the introduction of normal subgroups, typically as an afterthought to the beginner's exercise about the case of index $2$. With the Sylow theorems not covered but having been heard of, my guess was this was known ...
      – Hagen von Eitzen
      Nov 22 '18 at 8:39











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    2 Answers
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    3














    I'll make my comment into an answer.



    If $b notin langle a rangle$ and $o(b)=p$, then $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle = {1}$, and so $|langle b ranglelangle a rangle|=p^2 > |G|$, contradiction.



    Since you are looking for an elementary proof, I will justify the claim that $|langle b ranglelangle a rangle|=p^2$. If not, then there exist $i,j,k,l in [0 .. p-1]$ with $(i,j) ne (k,l)$ and $a^ib^j = a^kb^l$, but then $a^{i-k} = b^{l-j}$ is a nontrivial element of $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle$.



    There is a general result that, for finite subgroups $A$ and $B$ of a group $G$, we have $|AB| = |A||B|/|A cap B|$






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      3














      I'll make my comment into an answer.



      If $b notin langle a rangle$ and $o(b)=p$, then $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle = {1}$, and so $|langle b ranglelangle a rangle|=p^2 > |G|$, contradiction.



      Since you are looking for an elementary proof, I will justify the claim that $|langle b ranglelangle a rangle|=p^2$. If not, then there exist $i,j,k,l in [0 .. p-1]$ with $(i,j) ne (k,l)$ and $a^ib^j = a^kb^l$, but then $a^{i-k} = b^{l-j}$ is a nontrivial element of $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle$.



      There is a general result that, for finite subgroups $A$ and $B$ of a group $G$, we have $|AB| = |A||B|/|A cap B|$






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        3












        3








        3






        I'll make my comment into an answer.



        If $b notin langle a rangle$ and $o(b)=p$, then $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle = {1}$, and so $|langle b ranglelangle a rangle|=p^2 > |G|$, contradiction.



        Since you are looking for an elementary proof, I will justify the claim that $|langle b ranglelangle a rangle|=p^2$. If not, then there exist $i,j,k,l in [0 .. p-1]$ with $(i,j) ne (k,l)$ and $a^ib^j = a^kb^l$, but then $a^{i-k} = b^{l-j}$ is a nontrivial element of $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle$.



        There is a general result that, for finite subgroups $A$ and $B$ of a group $G$, we have $|AB| = |A||B|/|A cap B|$






        share|cite|improve this answer












        I'll make my comment into an answer.



        If $b notin langle a rangle$ and $o(b)=p$, then $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle = {1}$, and so $|langle b ranglelangle a rangle|=p^2 > |G|$, contradiction.



        Since you are looking for an elementary proof, I will justify the claim that $|langle b ranglelangle a rangle|=p^2$. If not, then there exist $i,j,k,l in [0 .. p-1]$ with $(i,j) ne (k,l)$ and $a^ib^j = a^kb^l$, but then $a^{i-k} = b^{l-j}$ is a nontrivial element of $langle b rangle cap langle a rangle$.



        There is a general result that, for finite subgroups $A$ and $B$ of a group $G$, we have $|AB| = |A||B|/|A cap B|$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 22 '18 at 8:03









        Derek HoltDerek Holt

        52.7k53570




        52.7k53570























            1














            More generally, if $q$ is the smallest prime dividing $|G|$, then any subgroup $H$ of index $q$ is normal.$^1$



            Now in the given problem, what can you say about the image of $b$ in $G/langle arangle$?





            $^1$ Namely, $G$ acts by left multiplication on the set $X={,gHmid gin G,}$ of the $q$ cosets, which gives us a homomorphism $phicolon Gto S_q$. Clearly, $kerphisubseteq H$.
            Note that $H$ leaves the point $Hin X$ fixed, hence is in fact mapped by $phi$ into $S_{q-1}$. As $|S_{q-1}|$ is co-prime to $|G|$, we must have $Hsubseteq kerphi$.






            share|cite|improve this answer



















            • 3




              But surely you need to justify your claim that the subgroup of index $q$ is normal.
              – Derek Holt
              Nov 22 '18 at 7:49










            • @DerekHolt This ought to have been shown shortly after the introduction of normal subgroups, typically as an afterthought to the beginner's exercise about the case of index $2$. With the Sylow theorems not covered but having been heard of, my guess was this was known ...
              – Hagen von Eitzen
              Nov 22 '18 at 8:39
















            1














            More generally, if $q$ is the smallest prime dividing $|G|$, then any subgroup $H$ of index $q$ is normal.$^1$



            Now in the given problem, what can you say about the image of $b$ in $G/langle arangle$?





            $^1$ Namely, $G$ acts by left multiplication on the set $X={,gHmid gin G,}$ of the $q$ cosets, which gives us a homomorphism $phicolon Gto S_q$. Clearly, $kerphisubseteq H$.
            Note that $H$ leaves the point $Hin X$ fixed, hence is in fact mapped by $phi$ into $S_{q-1}$. As $|S_{q-1}|$ is co-prime to $|G|$, we must have $Hsubseteq kerphi$.






            share|cite|improve this answer



















            • 3




              But surely you need to justify your claim that the subgroup of index $q$ is normal.
              – Derek Holt
              Nov 22 '18 at 7:49










            • @DerekHolt This ought to have been shown shortly after the introduction of normal subgroups, typically as an afterthought to the beginner's exercise about the case of index $2$. With the Sylow theorems not covered but having been heard of, my guess was this was known ...
              – Hagen von Eitzen
              Nov 22 '18 at 8:39














            1












            1








            1






            More generally, if $q$ is the smallest prime dividing $|G|$, then any subgroup $H$ of index $q$ is normal.$^1$



            Now in the given problem, what can you say about the image of $b$ in $G/langle arangle$?





            $^1$ Namely, $G$ acts by left multiplication on the set $X={,gHmid gin G,}$ of the $q$ cosets, which gives us a homomorphism $phicolon Gto S_q$. Clearly, $kerphisubseteq H$.
            Note that $H$ leaves the point $Hin X$ fixed, hence is in fact mapped by $phi$ into $S_{q-1}$. As $|S_{q-1}|$ is co-prime to $|G|$, we must have $Hsubseteq kerphi$.






            share|cite|improve this answer














            More generally, if $q$ is the smallest prime dividing $|G|$, then any subgroup $H$ of index $q$ is normal.$^1$



            Now in the given problem, what can you say about the image of $b$ in $G/langle arangle$?





            $^1$ Namely, $G$ acts by left multiplication on the set $X={,gHmid gin G,}$ of the $q$ cosets, which gives us a homomorphism $phicolon Gto S_q$. Clearly, $kerphisubseteq H$.
            Note that $H$ leaves the point $Hin X$ fixed, hence is in fact mapped by $phi$ into $S_{q-1}$. As $|S_{q-1}|$ is co-prime to $|G|$, we must have $Hsubseteq kerphi$.







            share|cite|improve this answer














            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Nov 22 '18 at 8:53

























            answered Nov 22 '18 at 7:46









            Hagen von EitzenHagen von Eitzen

            276k21269496




            276k21269496








            • 3




              But surely you need to justify your claim that the subgroup of index $q$ is normal.
              – Derek Holt
              Nov 22 '18 at 7:49










            • @DerekHolt This ought to have been shown shortly after the introduction of normal subgroups, typically as an afterthought to the beginner's exercise about the case of index $2$. With the Sylow theorems not covered but having been heard of, my guess was this was known ...
              – Hagen von Eitzen
              Nov 22 '18 at 8:39














            • 3




              But surely you need to justify your claim that the subgroup of index $q$ is normal.
              – Derek Holt
              Nov 22 '18 at 7:49










            • @DerekHolt This ought to have been shown shortly after the introduction of normal subgroups, typically as an afterthought to the beginner's exercise about the case of index $2$. With the Sylow theorems not covered but having been heard of, my guess was this was known ...
              – Hagen von Eitzen
              Nov 22 '18 at 8:39








            3




            3




            But surely you need to justify your claim that the subgroup of index $q$ is normal.
            – Derek Holt
            Nov 22 '18 at 7:49




            But surely you need to justify your claim that the subgroup of index $q$ is normal.
            – Derek Holt
            Nov 22 '18 at 7:49












            @DerekHolt This ought to have been shown shortly after the introduction of normal subgroups, typically as an afterthought to the beginner's exercise about the case of index $2$. With the Sylow theorems not covered but having been heard of, my guess was this was known ...
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Nov 22 '18 at 8:39




            @DerekHolt This ought to have been shown shortly after the introduction of normal subgroups, typically as an afterthought to the beginner's exercise about the case of index $2$. With the Sylow theorems not covered but having been heard of, my guess was this was known ...
            – Hagen von Eitzen
            Nov 22 '18 at 8:39


















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