Power of a generator generates the group iff this power is coprime to the group order.












3












$begingroup$


Let $langle grangle$ be a cyclic group of order $n$. Suppose $1leq q leq n-1$, I want to show that $g^q$ generates $langle grangle$ if and only if $gcd(n,q)=1$.



Suppose $g^q$ generates $langle grangle$, then



$$
1,g^q,g^{2q},...,g^{(n-1)q}
$$



are all distinct and $g^{nq}=1$, since $n$ is the order of the group. Note that this is the lowest multiple of $q$ for which this is the case. Therefore $operatorname{lcm}(q,n)=qn$ and it follows that $q$ and $n$ are coprime.



On the other hand, if $gcd(q,n)=1$, then $operatorname{lcm}(q,n)=qn$, we have $g^{nq}=1$ and hence all of



$$
1,g^q,g^{2q},...,g^{(n-1)q}
$$



are distinct again and $g^q$ is a generator.



Is my proof correct at all and is there maybe a more elegant argument?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    3












    $begingroup$


    Let $langle grangle$ be a cyclic group of order $n$. Suppose $1leq q leq n-1$, I want to show that $g^q$ generates $langle grangle$ if and only if $gcd(n,q)=1$.



    Suppose $g^q$ generates $langle grangle$, then



    $$
    1,g^q,g^{2q},...,g^{(n-1)q}
    $$



    are all distinct and $g^{nq}=1$, since $n$ is the order of the group. Note that this is the lowest multiple of $q$ for which this is the case. Therefore $operatorname{lcm}(q,n)=qn$ and it follows that $q$ and $n$ are coprime.



    On the other hand, if $gcd(q,n)=1$, then $operatorname{lcm}(q,n)=qn$, we have $g^{nq}=1$ and hence all of



    $$
    1,g^q,g^{2q},...,g^{(n-1)q}
    $$



    are distinct again and $g^q$ is a generator.



    Is my proof correct at all and is there maybe a more elegant argument?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3


      1



      $begingroup$


      Let $langle grangle$ be a cyclic group of order $n$. Suppose $1leq q leq n-1$, I want to show that $g^q$ generates $langle grangle$ if and only if $gcd(n,q)=1$.



      Suppose $g^q$ generates $langle grangle$, then



      $$
      1,g^q,g^{2q},...,g^{(n-1)q}
      $$



      are all distinct and $g^{nq}=1$, since $n$ is the order of the group. Note that this is the lowest multiple of $q$ for which this is the case. Therefore $operatorname{lcm}(q,n)=qn$ and it follows that $q$ and $n$ are coprime.



      On the other hand, if $gcd(q,n)=1$, then $operatorname{lcm}(q,n)=qn$, we have $g^{nq}=1$ and hence all of



      $$
      1,g^q,g^{2q},...,g^{(n-1)q}
      $$



      are distinct again and $g^q$ is a generator.



      Is my proof correct at all and is there maybe a more elegant argument?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $langle grangle$ be a cyclic group of order $n$. Suppose $1leq q leq n-1$, I want to show that $g^q$ generates $langle grangle$ if and only if $gcd(n,q)=1$.



      Suppose $g^q$ generates $langle grangle$, then



      $$
      1,g^q,g^{2q},...,g^{(n-1)q}
      $$



      are all distinct and $g^{nq}=1$, since $n$ is the order of the group. Note that this is the lowest multiple of $q$ for which this is the case. Therefore $operatorname{lcm}(q,n)=qn$ and it follows that $q$ and $n$ are coprime.



      On the other hand, if $gcd(q,n)=1$, then $operatorname{lcm}(q,n)=qn$, we have $g^{nq}=1$ and hence all of



      $$
      1,g^q,g^{2q},...,g^{(n-1)q}
      $$



      are distinct again and $g^q$ is a generator.



      Is my proof correct at all and is there maybe a more elegant argument?







      group-theory






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      asked Oct 27 '13 at 14:34









      Jimmy RJimmy R

      1,200619




      1,200619






















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          $begingroup$

          Your proof seems correct to me.






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            $begingroup$

            Your proof seems correct to me.






            share|cite|improve this answer









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              0












              $begingroup$

              Your proof seems correct to me.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$
















                0












                0








                0





                $begingroup$

                Your proof seems correct to me.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$



                Your proof seems correct to me.







                share|cite|improve this answer












                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer










                answered Oct 27 '13 at 14:39









                BIS HDBIS HD

                1,9371127




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