Calculating $mathbb{E}[Re^{iX}]$ where $R$ and $X$ are independent random variables.












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Let $R$ be an exponential random variable with parameter $lambda>0$ and let X be independent from R and uniformly distributed on $(0,2pi)$, find $mathbb{E}[Re^{iX}]$. My intuition tells me that the expectation of the product is the product of the expectations and that that the final answer should be $-mathbb{E}[R]$ since $mathbb{E}[X]=pi$. But using Euler's formula and integrating I get that $mathbb{E}[e^{iX}]=0$ which doesn't make sense. Any tips on this would be appreciated.










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    $begingroup$


    Let $R$ be an exponential random variable with parameter $lambda>0$ and let X be independent from R and uniformly distributed on $(0,2pi)$, find $mathbb{E}[Re^{iX}]$. My intuition tells me that the expectation of the product is the product of the expectations and that that the final answer should be $-mathbb{E}[R]$ since $mathbb{E}[X]=pi$. But using Euler's formula and integrating I get that $mathbb{E}[e^{iX}]=0$ which doesn't make sense. Any tips on this would be appreciated.










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Let $R$ be an exponential random variable with parameter $lambda>0$ and let X be independent from R and uniformly distributed on $(0,2pi)$, find $mathbb{E}[Re^{iX}]$. My intuition tells me that the expectation of the product is the product of the expectations and that that the final answer should be $-mathbb{E}[R]$ since $mathbb{E}[X]=pi$. But using Euler's formula and integrating I get that $mathbb{E}[e^{iX}]=0$ which doesn't make sense. Any tips on this would be appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $R$ be an exponential random variable with parameter $lambda>0$ and let X be independent from R and uniformly distributed on $(0,2pi)$, find $mathbb{E}[Re^{iX}]$. My intuition tells me that the expectation of the product is the product of the expectations and that that the final answer should be $-mathbb{E}[R]$ since $mathbb{E}[X]=pi$. But using Euler's formula and integrating I get that $mathbb{E}[e^{iX}]=0$ which doesn't make sense. Any tips on this would be appreciated.







      probability integration probability-theory complex-numbers expected-value






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      edited Jan 27 at 13:49







      Federico

















      asked Jan 27 at 13:36









      FedericoFederico

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          $begingroup$

          Your wrong assumption seems to be that $mathbb Ee^{iX}=e^{mathbb EiX}=e^{ipi}=-1$.



          The first equality is not correct.



          It is correct that $mathbb Ee^{iX}=0$.



          Observe that $e^{iX}$ and $-e^{iX}=e^{i(X+pi)}$ will have equal distribution (both uniform on unit circle).



          This tells us that $-mathbb Ee^{iX}=mathbb Ee^{iX}$ or equivalently $mathbb Ee^{iX}=0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the reply, also if we let $Z=Re^{iX}$ and I have to calculate, for example, $mathbb{E}[|Z|^2]$, is it justifiable to say $mathbb{E}[|Z|^2]=mathbb{E}[|Re^{iX}|^2]=mathbb{E}[|R|^2]$?
            $endgroup$
            – Federico
            Jan 27 at 14:37










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct. And moreover $|R|^2=R^2$ so also $cdots=mathbb ER^2$.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 27 at 14:40











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          1 Answer
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          active

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          $begingroup$

          Your wrong assumption seems to be that $mathbb Ee^{iX}=e^{mathbb EiX}=e^{ipi}=-1$.



          The first equality is not correct.



          It is correct that $mathbb Ee^{iX}=0$.



          Observe that $e^{iX}$ and $-e^{iX}=e^{i(X+pi)}$ will have equal distribution (both uniform on unit circle).



          This tells us that $-mathbb Ee^{iX}=mathbb Ee^{iX}$ or equivalently $mathbb Ee^{iX}=0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the reply, also if we let $Z=Re^{iX}$ and I have to calculate, for example, $mathbb{E}[|Z|^2]$, is it justifiable to say $mathbb{E}[|Z|^2]=mathbb{E}[|Re^{iX}|^2]=mathbb{E}[|R|^2]$?
            $endgroup$
            – Federico
            Jan 27 at 14:37










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct. And moreover $|R|^2=R^2$ so also $cdots=mathbb ER^2$.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 27 at 14:40
















          2












          $begingroup$

          Your wrong assumption seems to be that $mathbb Ee^{iX}=e^{mathbb EiX}=e^{ipi}=-1$.



          The first equality is not correct.



          It is correct that $mathbb Ee^{iX}=0$.



          Observe that $e^{iX}$ and $-e^{iX}=e^{i(X+pi)}$ will have equal distribution (both uniform on unit circle).



          This tells us that $-mathbb Ee^{iX}=mathbb Ee^{iX}$ or equivalently $mathbb Ee^{iX}=0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the reply, also if we let $Z=Re^{iX}$ and I have to calculate, for example, $mathbb{E}[|Z|^2]$, is it justifiable to say $mathbb{E}[|Z|^2]=mathbb{E}[|Re^{iX}|^2]=mathbb{E}[|R|^2]$?
            $endgroup$
            – Federico
            Jan 27 at 14:37










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct. And moreover $|R|^2=R^2$ so also $cdots=mathbb ER^2$.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 27 at 14:40














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          Your wrong assumption seems to be that $mathbb Ee^{iX}=e^{mathbb EiX}=e^{ipi}=-1$.



          The first equality is not correct.



          It is correct that $mathbb Ee^{iX}=0$.



          Observe that $e^{iX}$ and $-e^{iX}=e^{i(X+pi)}$ will have equal distribution (both uniform on unit circle).



          This tells us that $-mathbb Ee^{iX}=mathbb Ee^{iX}$ or equivalently $mathbb Ee^{iX}=0$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Your wrong assumption seems to be that $mathbb Ee^{iX}=e^{mathbb EiX}=e^{ipi}=-1$.



          The first equality is not correct.



          It is correct that $mathbb Ee^{iX}=0$.



          Observe that $e^{iX}$ and $-e^{iX}=e^{i(X+pi)}$ will have equal distribution (both uniform on unit circle).



          This tells us that $-mathbb Ee^{iX}=mathbb Ee^{iX}$ or equivalently $mathbb Ee^{iX}=0$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 27 at 13:49









          drhabdrhab

          103k545136




          103k545136












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the reply, also if we let $Z=Re^{iX}$ and I have to calculate, for example, $mathbb{E}[|Z|^2]$, is it justifiable to say $mathbb{E}[|Z|^2]=mathbb{E}[|Re^{iX}|^2]=mathbb{E}[|R|^2]$?
            $endgroup$
            – Federico
            Jan 27 at 14:37










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct. And moreover $|R|^2=R^2$ so also $cdots=mathbb ER^2$.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 27 at 14:40


















          • $begingroup$
            Thanks for the reply, also if we let $Z=Re^{iX}$ and I have to calculate, for example, $mathbb{E}[|Z|^2]$, is it justifiable to say $mathbb{E}[|Z|^2]=mathbb{E}[|Re^{iX}|^2]=mathbb{E}[|R|^2]$?
            $endgroup$
            – Federico
            Jan 27 at 14:37










          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct. And moreover $|R|^2=R^2$ so also $cdots=mathbb ER^2$.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 27 at 14:40
















          $begingroup$
          Thanks for the reply, also if we let $Z=Re^{iX}$ and I have to calculate, for example, $mathbb{E}[|Z|^2]$, is it justifiable to say $mathbb{E}[|Z|^2]=mathbb{E}[|Re^{iX}|^2]=mathbb{E}[|R|^2]$?
          $endgroup$
          – Federico
          Jan 27 at 14:37




          $begingroup$
          Thanks for the reply, also if we let $Z=Re^{iX}$ and I have to calculate, for example, $mathbb{E}[|Z|^2]$, is it justifiable to say $mathbb{E}[|Z|^2]=mathbb{E}[|Re^{iX}|^2]=mathbb{E}[|R|^2]$?
          $endgroup$
          – Federico
          Jan 27 at 14:37












          $begingroup$
          Yes, that is correct. And moreover $|R|^2=R^2$ so also $cdots=mathbb ER^2$.
          $endgroup$
          – drhab
          Jan 27 at 14:40




          $begingroup$
          Yes, that is correct. And moreover $|R|^2=R^2$ so also $cdots=mathbb ER^2$.
          $endgroup$
          – drhab
          Jan 27 at 14:40


















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