Free action of a subgroup's normaliser on a set of orbits
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I'm struggling with this question:
Let $G$ be a group that acts freely on a set $X$, and $K < G$. Prove that the normaliser of $K$, $N(K)$, acts freely on $X/K$.
The question was posed to me like this, but it doesn't even seem to be fully specified. How can we prove that $N(K)$ acts freely on $X/K$ when we don't even know how it acts on $X/K$? Do we assume that it acts in the natural way, i.e. that $n *(K cdot x) = (nK)cdot x$? I've made this assumption but keep getting stuck when I try to prove it.
group-theory finite-groups group-actions
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm struggling with this question:
Let $G$ be a group that acts freely on a set $X$, and $K < G$. Prove that the normaliser of $K$, $N(K)$, acts freely on $X/K$.
The question was posed to me like this, but it doesn't even seem to be fully specified. How can we prove that $N(K)$ acts freely on $X/K$ when we don't even know how it acts on $X/K$? Do we assume that it acts in the natural way, i.e. that $n *(K cdot x) = (nK)cdot x$? I've made this assumption but keep getting stuck when I try to prove it.
group-theory finite-groups group-actions
$endgroup$
1
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Can I point out that this is badly worded ?I don't think that $G$ is intended to be a free group in particular, but $G$ is a group, so $G$ cannot be a group action. You mean something like "Suppose that the group $G$ acts freely on the set $X$". There is a natrual indiuced action of $N_G(K)$ on the orbits of $K$ by $n.(Kx) := K(n.x)$, for $n in N(K)$ and $x in X$.
$endgroup$
– Derek Holt
Jan 27 at 13:55
$begingroup$
fixed the wording
$endgroup$
– D G
Jan 27 at 14:51
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I'm struggling with this question:
Let $G$ be a group that acts freely on a set $X$, and $K < G$. Prove that the normaliser of $K$, $N(K)$, acts freely on $X/K$.
The question was posed to me like this, but it doesn't even seem to be fully specified. How can we prove that $N(K)$ acts freely on $X/K$ when we don't even know how it acts on $X/K$? Do we assume that it acts in the natural way, i.e. that $n *(K cdot x) = (nK)cdot x$? I've made this assumption but keep getting stuck when I try to prove it.
group-theory finite-groups group-actions
$endgroup$
I'm struggling with this question:
Let $G$ be a group that acts freely on a set $X$, and $K < G$. Prove that the normaliser of $K$, $N(K)$, acts freely on $X/K$.
The question was posed to me like this, but it doesn't even seem to be fully specified. How can we prove that $N(K)$ acts freely on $X/K$ when we don't even know how it acts on $X/K$? Do we assume that it acts in the natural way, i.e. that $n *(K cdot x) = (nK)cdot x$? I've made this assumption but keep getting stuck when I try to prove it.
group-theory finite-groups group-actions
group-theory finite-groups group-actions
edited Jan 27 at 14:51
D G
asked Jan 27 at 13:47
D GD G
1628
1628
1
$begingroup$
Can I point out that this is badly worded ?I don't think that $G$ is intended to be a free group in particular, but $G$ is a group, so $G$ cannot be a group action. You mean something like "Suppose that the group $G$ acts freely on the set $X$". There is a natrual indiuced action of $N_G(K)$ on the orbits of $K$ by $n.(Kx) := K(n.x)$, for $n in N(K)$ and $x in X$.
$endgroup$
– Derek Holt
Jan 27 at 13:55
$begingroup$
fixed the wording
$endgroup$
– D G
Jan 27 at 14:51
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Can I point out that this is badly worded ?I don't think that $G$ is intended to be a free group in particular, but $G$ is a group, so $G$ cannot be a group action. You mean something like "Suppose that the group $G$ acts freely on the set $X$". There is a natrual indiuced action of $N_G(K)$ on the orbits of $K$ by $n.(Kx) := K(n.x)$, for $n in N(K)$ and $x in X$.
$endgroup$
– Derek Holt
Jan 27 at 13:55
$begingroup$
fixed the wording
$endgroup$
– D G
Jan 27 at 14:51
1
1
$begingroup$
Can I point out that this is badly worded ?I don't think that $G$ is intended to be a free group in particular, but $G$ is a group, so $G$ cannot be a group action. You mean something like "Suppose that the group $G$ acts freely on the set $X$". There is a natrual indiuced action of $N_G(K)$ on the orbits of $K$ by $n.(Kx) := K(n.x)$, for $n in N(K)$ and $x in X$.
$endgroup$
– Derek Holt
Jan 27 at 13:55
$begingroup$
Can I point out that this is badly worded ?I don't think that $G$ is intended to be a free group in particular, but $G$ is a group, so $G$ cannot be a group action. You mean something like "Suppose that the group $G$ acts freely on the set $X$". There is a natrual indiuced action of $N_G(K)$ on the orbits of $K$ by $n.(Kx) := K(n.x)$, for $n in N(K)$ and $x in X$.
$endgroup$
– Derek Holt
Jan 27 at 13:55
$begingroup$
fixed the wording
$endgroup$
– D G
Jan 27 at 14:51
$begingroup$
fixed the wording
$endgroup$
– D G
Jan 27 at 14:51
add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
It is $N(K)/K$ which acts freely on $X/K$, not $N(K)$ since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$.
We denote by $p:Xrightarrow X/K$ the quotient map. Let $gin N(K)$ and $xin X$, we define $g.p(x)=p(g.x)$. This action is well defined, if $p(x)=p(y)$, $y=kx, kin K$, $gy=gkx=gkg^{-1}g(x)$ since $gin N(K)$, $gkg^{-1}in K$ and $p(g.x)=p(g.y)$.
Since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$ this induces an action of $N(K)/K$ on $X/K$.
Let $bar gin N(K)/K$ Suppose that $bar g.p(x)=p(x)$. Let $gin N(K)$ whose is image by the quotient map $N(K)rightarrow N(K)/K$ is $bar g$, we deduce that $gx=kx, kin K$, we deduce that $g^{-1}kx=x$ since $G$ acts freely, $g=k$
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$begingroup$
It is $N(K)/K$ which acts freely on $X/K$, not $N(K)$ since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$.
We denote by $p:Xrightarrow X/K$ the quotient map. Let $gin N(K)$ and $xin X$, we define $g.p(x)=p(g.x)$. This action is well defined, if $p(x)=p(y)$, $y=kx, kin K$, $gy=gkx=gkg^{-1}g(x)$ since $gin N(K)$, $gkg^{-1}in K$ and $p(g.x)=p(g.y)$.
Since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$ this induces an action of $N(K)/K$ on $X/K$.
Let $bar gin N(K)/K$ Suppose that $bar g.p(x)=p(x)$. Let $gin N(K)$ whose is image by the quotient map $N(K)rightarrow N(K)/K$ is $bar g$, we deduce that $gx=kx, kin K$, we deduce that $g^{-1}kx=x$ since $G$ acts freely, $g=k$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It is $N(K)/K$ which acts freely on $X/K$, not $N(K)$ since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$.
We denote by $p:Xrightarrow X/K$ the quotient map. Let $gin N(K)$ and $xin X$, we define $g.p(x)=p(g.x)$. This action is well defined, if $p(x)=p(y)$, $y=kx, kin K$, $gy=gkx=gkg^{-1}g(x)$ since $gin N(K)$, $gkg^{-1}in K$ and $p(g.x)=p(g.y)$.
Since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$ this induces an action of $N(K)/K$ on $X/K$.
Let $bar gin N(K)/K$ Suppose that $bar g.p(x)=p(x)$. Let $gin N(K)$ whose is image by the quotient map $N(K)rightarrow N(K)/K$ is $bar g$, we deduce that $gx=kx, kin K$, we deduce that $g^{-1}kx=x$ since $G$ acts freely, $g=k$
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
It is $N(K)/K$ which acts freely on $X/K$, not $N(K)$ since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$.
We denote by $p:Xrightarrow X/K$ the quotient map. Let $gin N(K)$ and $xin X$, we define $g.p(x)=p(g.x)$. This action is well defined, if $p(x)=p(y)$, $y=kx, kin K$, $gy=gkx=gkg^{-1}g(x)$ since $gin N(K)$, $gkg^{-1}in K$ and $p(g.x)=p(g.y)$.
Since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$ this induces an action of $N(K)/K$ on $X/K$.
Let $bar gin N(K)/K$ Suppose that $bar g.p(x)=p(x)$. Let $gin N(K)$ whose is image by the quotient map $N(K)rightarrow N(K)/K$ is $bar g$, we deduce that $gx=kx, kin K$, we deduce that $g^{-1}kx=x$ since $G$ acts freely, $g=k$
$endgroup$
It is $N(K)/K$ which acts freely on $X/K$, not $N(K)$ since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$.
We denote by $p:Xrightarrow X/K$ the quotient map. Let $gin N(K)$ and $xin X$, we define $g.p(x)=p(g.x)$. This action is well defined, if $p(x)=p(y)$, $y=kx, kin K$, $gy=gkx=gkg^{-1}g(x)$ since $gin N(K)$, $gkg^{-1}in K$ and $p(g.x)=p(g.y)$.
Since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$ this induces an action of $N(K)/K$ on $X/K$.
Let $bar gin N(K)/K$ Suppose that $bar g.p(x)=p(x)$. Let $gin N(K)$ whose is image by the quotient map $N(K)rightarrow N(K)/K$ is $bar g$, we deduce that $gx=kx, kin K$, we deduce that $g^{-1}kx=x$ since $G$ acts freely, $g=k$
edited Jan 27 at 14:01
answered Jan 27 at 13:56


Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide
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$begingroup$
Can I point out that this is badly worded ?I don't think that $G$ is intended to be a free group in particular, but $G$ is a group, so $G$ cannot be a group action. You mean something like "Suppose that the group $G$ acts freely on the set $X$". There is a natrual indiuced action of $N_G(K)$ on the orbits of $K$ by $n.(Kx) := K(n.x)$, for $n in N(K)$ and $x in X$.
$endgroup$
– Derek Holt
Jan 27 at 13:55
$begingroup$
fixed the wording
$endgroup$
– D G
Jan 27 at 14:51