Free action of a subgroup's normaliser on a set of orbits












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I'm struggling with this question:




Let $G$ be a group that acts freely on a set $X$, and $K < G$. Prove that the normaliser of $K$, $N(K)$, acts freely on $X/K$.




The question was posed to me like this, but it doesn't even seem to be fully specified. How can we prove that $N(K)$ acts freely on $X/K$ when we don't even know how it acts on $X/K$? Do we assume that it acts in the natural way, i.e. that $n *(K cdot x) = (nK)cdot x$? I've made this assumption but keep getting stuck when I try to prove it.










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    $begingroup$
    Can I point out that this is badly worded ?I don't think that $G$ is intended to be a free group in particular, but $G$ is a group, so $G$ cannot be a group action. You mean something like "Suppose that the group $G$ acts freely on the set $X$". There is a natrual indiuced action of $N_G(K)$ on the orbits of $K$ by $n.(Kx) := K(n.x)$, for $n in N(K)$ and $x in X$.
    $endgroup$
    – Derek Holt
    Jan 27 at 13:55












  • $begingroup$
    fixed the wording
    $endgroup$
    – D G
    Jan 27 at 14:51
















0












$begingroup$


I'm struggling with this question:




Let $G$ be a group that acts freely on a set $X$, and $K < G$. Prove that the normaliser of $K$, $N(K)$, acts freely on $X/K$.




The question was posed to me like this, but it doesn't even seem to be fully specified. How can we prove that $N(K)$ acts freely on $X/K$ when we don't even know how it acts on $X/K$? Do we assume that it acts in the natural way, i.e. that $n *(K cdot x) = (nK)cdot x$? I've made this assumption but keep getting stuck when I try to prove it.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Can I point out that this is badly worded ?I don't think that $G$ is intended to be a free group in particular, but $G$ is a group, so $G$ cannot be a group action. You mean something like "Suppose that the group $G$ acts freely on the set $X$". There is a natrual indiuced action of $N_G(K)$ on the orbits of $K$ by $n.(Kx) := K(n.x)$, for $n in N(K)$ and $x in X$.
    $endgroup$
    – Derek Holt
    Jan 27 at 13:55












  • $begingroup$
    fixed the wording
    $endgroup$
    – D G
    Jan 27 at 14:51














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I'm struggling with this question:




Let $G$ be a group that acts freely on a set $X$, and $K < G$. Prove that the normaliser of $K$, $N(K)$, acts freely on $X/K$.




The question was posed to me like this, but it doesn't even seem to be fully specified. How can we prove that $N(K)$ acts freely on $X/K$ when we don't even know how it acts on $X/K$? Do we assume that it acts in the natural way, i.e. that $n *(K cdot x) = (nK)cdot x$? I've made this assumption but keep getting stuck when I try to prove it.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I'm struggling with this question:




Let $G$ be a group that acts freely on a set $X$, and $K < G$. Prove that the normaliser of $K$, $N(K)$, acts freely on $X/K$.




The question was posed to me like this, but it doesn't even seem to be fully specified. How can we prove that $N(K)$ acts freely on $X/K$ when we don't even know how it acts on $X/K$? Do we assume that it acts in the natural way, i.e. that $n *(K cdot x) = (nK)cdot x$? I've made this assumption but keep getting stuck when I try to prove it.







group-theory finite-groups group-actions






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edited Jan 27 at 14:51







D G

















asked Jan 27 at 13:47









D GD G

1628




1628








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Can I point out that this is badly worded ?I don't think that $G$ is intended to be a free group in particular, but $G$ is a group, so $G$ cannot be a group action. You mean something like "Suppose that the group $G$ acts freely on the set $X$". There is a natrual indiuced action of $N_G(K)$ on the orbits of $K$ by $n.(Kx) := K(n.x)$, for $n in N(K)$ and $x in X$.
    $endgroup$
    – Derek Holt
    Jan 27 at 13:55












  • $begingroup$
    fixed the wording
    $endgroup$
    – D G
    Jan 27 at 14:51














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Can I point out that this is badly worded ?I don't think that $G$ is intended to be a free group in particular, but $G$ is a group, so $G$ cannot be a group action. You mean something like "Suppose that the group $G$ acts freely on the set $X$". There is a natrual indiuced action of $N_G(K)$ on the orbits of $K$ by $n.(Kx) := K(n.x)$, for $n in N(K)$ and $x in X$.
    $endgroup$
    – Derek Holt
    Jan 27 at 13:55












  • $begingroup$
    fixed the wording
    $endgroup$
    – D G
    Jan 27 at 14:51








1




1




$begingroup$
Can I point out that this is badly worded ?I don't think that $G$ is intended to be a free group in particular, but $G$ is a group, so $G$ cannot be a group action. You mean something like "Suppose that the group $G$ acts freely on the set $X$". There is a natrual indiuced action of $N_G(K)$ on the orbits of $K$ by $n.(Kx) := K(n.x)$, for $n in N(K)$ and $x in X$.
$endgroup$
– Derek Holt
Jan 27 at 13:55






$begingroup$
Can I point out that this is badly worded ?I don't think that $G$ is intended to be a free group in particular, but $G$ is a group, so $G$ cannot be a group action. You mean something like "Suppose that the group $G$ acts freely on the set $X$". There is a natrual indiuced action of $N_G(K)$ on the orbits of $K$ by $n.(Kx) := K(n.x)$, for $n in N(K)$ and $x in X$.
$endgroup$
– Derek Holt
Jan 27 at 13:55














$begingroup$
fixed the wording
$endgroup$
– D G
Jan 27 at 14:51




$begingroup$
fixed the wording
$endgroup$
– D G
Jan 27 at 14:51










1 Answer
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It is $N(K)/K$ which acts freely on $X/K$, not $N(K)$ since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$.



We denote by $p:Xrightarrow X/K$ the quotient map. Let $gin N(K)$ and $xin X$, we define $g.p(x)=p(g.x)$. This action is well defined, if $p(x)=p(y)$, $y=kx, kin K$, $gy=gkx=gkg^{-1}g(x)$ since $gin N(K)$, $gkg^{-1}in K$ and $p(g.x)=p(g.y)$.
Since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$ this induces an action of $N(K)/K$ on $X/K$.



Let $bar gin N(K)/K$ Suppose that $bar g.p(x)=p(x)$. Let $gin N(K)$ whose is image by the quotient map $N(K)rightarrow N(K)/K$ is $bar g$, we deduce that $gx=kx, kin K$, we deduce that $g^{-1}kx=x$ since $G$ acts freely, $g=k$






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    $begingroup$

    It is $N(K)/K$ which acts freely on $X/K$, not $N(K)$ since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$.



    We denote by $p:Xrightarrow X/K$ the quotient map. Let $gin N(K)$ and $xin X$, we define $g.p(x)=p(g.x)$. This action is well defined, if $p(x)=p(y)$, $y=kx, kin K$, $gy=gkx=gkg^{-1}g(x)$ since $gin N(K)$, $gkg^{-1}in K$ and $p(g.x)=p(g.y)$.
    Since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$ this induces an action of $N(K)/K$ on $X/K$.



    Let $bar gin N(K)/K$ Suppose that $bar g.p(x)=p(x)$. Let $gin N(K)$ whose is image by the quotient map $N(K)rightarrow N(K)/K$ is $bar g$, we deduce that $gx=kx, kin K$, we deduce that $g^{-1}kx=x$ since $G$ acts freely, $g=k$






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      2












      $begingroup$

      It is $N(K)/K$ which acts freely on $X/K$, not $N(K)$ since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$.



      We denote by $p:Xrightarrow X/K$ the quotient map. Let $gin N(K)$ and $xin X$, we define $g.p(x)=p(g.x)$. This action is well defined, if $p(x)=p(y)$, $y=kx, kin K$, $gy=gkx=gkg^{-1}g(x)$ since $gin N(K)$, $gkg^{-1}in K$ and $p(g.x)=p(g.y)$.
      Since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$ this induces an action of $N(K)/K$ on $X/K$.



      Let $bar gin N(K)/K$ Suppose that $bar g.p(x)=p(x)$. Let $gin N(K)$ whose is image by the quotient map $N(K)rightarrow N(K)/K$ is $bar g$, we deduce that $gx=kx, kin K$, we deduce that $g^{-1}kx=x$ since $G$ acts freely, $g=k$






      share|cite|improve this answer











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        2





        $begingroup$

        It is $N(K)/K$ which acts freely on $X/K$, not $N(K)$ since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$.



        We denote by $p:Xrightarrow X/K$ the quotient map. Let $gin N(K)$ and $xin X$, we define $g.p(x)=p(g.x)$. This action is well defined, if $p(x)=p(y)$, $y=kx, kin K$, $gy=gkx=gkg^{-1}g(x)$ since $gin N(K)$, $gkg^{-1}in K$ and $p(g.x)=p(g.y)$.
        Since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$ this induces an action of $N(K)/K$ on $X/K$.



        Let $bar gin N(K)/K$ Suppose that $bar g.p(x)=p(x)$. Let $gin N(K)$ whose is image by the quotient map $N(K)rightarrow N(K)/K$ is $bar g$, we deduce that $gx=kx, kin K$, we deduce that $g^{-1}kx=x$ since $G$ acts freely, $g=k$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        It is $N(K)/K$ which acts freely on $X/K$, not $N(K)$ since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$.



        We denote by $p:Xrightarrow X/K$ the quotient map. Let $gin N(K)$ and $xin X$, we define $g.p(x)=p(g.x)$. This action is well defined, if $p(x)=p(y)$, $y=kx, kin K$, $gy=gkx=gkg^{-1}g(x)$ since $gin N(K)$, $gkg^{-1}in K$ and $p(g.x)=p(g.y)$.
        Since $K$ acts trivially on $X/K$ this induces an action of $N(K)/K$ on $X/K$.



        Let $bar gin N(K)/K$ Suppose that $bar g.p(x)=p(x)$. Let $gin N(K)$ whose is image by the quotient map $N(K)rightarrow N(K)/K$ is $bar g$, we deduce that $gx=kx, kin K$, we deduce that $g^{-1}kx=x$ since $G$ acts freely, $g=k$







        share|cite|improve this answer














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        edited Jan 27 at 14:01

























        answered Jan 27 at 13:56









        Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide

        59.8k11446




        59.8k11446






























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