Given a graph $G = (V, E),$ prove that if $|E| > binom{ |V| -1}{2}$ then the graph is connected.












1












$begingroup$


I know that a similar exercice was already posted on this website but I would like to have a piece of advice concerning the method/way of thinking I used to solve this problem. I don't know if I can do this here or if I have to write in the comment of the exercice that was posted. Pardon in advance.





We have to prove a statement $p Rightarrow q.$ So as to do so I wanted to prove $neg q Rightarrow neg p.$



To solve this problem I first considered that with a graph with $n$ vertices the maximum value of edges that we can get is when we consider the graph as a complete graph . But we have to deal with a disconnected graph. To obtain the maximal value of edges, I split the set of vertices into two partitions $X$ and $Y$ such that $Y$ = {v} where v $in$ $V$. This would mean that $|X| = |V|-1.$



Now, I compute the maximum number of edges that I can obtain from the graph $X: binom{|V| -1}{2}$. As it corresponds to the maximal value of edges that we can obtain (by respecting the conditions of the statement), it means that $|E| leq binom{|V| -1}{2}$.



Ps: I only removed one vertex because: the more I remove vertices, the less edges I will obtain.



Thank you in advance for your comments.










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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    math.stackexchange.com/questions/2680559/…
    $endgroup$
    – greedoid
    Jan 20 at 18:28










  • $begingroup$
    greedoid's link will give you an answer, but I also wanted to note some problems with your argument. First, when you write $Y={v|vin V}$, that means $Y=V$ in set theoretic language. What you should say is $Y={v}$ for some $vin V$, which means $Y$ contains only $v$. You also need to argue why partitioning the vertex set into $X$ and $Y$ like that will give the most edges.
    $endgroup$
    – Kevin Long
    Jan 20 at 18:33










  • $begingroup$
    Dear Kevin, thank you for your answer in fact I wrote in the way you proposed but my topic was edited. By the way in case it's not considered as admitted I will prove this by saying that If I consider a graph with 2 component X and Y such that |X| (= p) > |Y| ( = q) then if i remove one vertex from X so as to add it in the set Y the number of edges of this new graph will be lower because ${p-1}choose{2}$ + ${q+1}choose{2}$ <= ${p}choose{2}$ + ${q}choose{2}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Hugo Peyron
    Jan 20 at 19:35


















1












$begingroup$


I know that a similar exercice was already posted on this website but I would like to have a piece of advice concerning the method/way of thinking I used to solve this problem. I don't know if I can do this here or if I have to write in the comment of the exercice that was posted. Pardon in advance.





We have to prove a statement $p Rightarrow q.$ So as to do so I wanted to prove $neg q Rightarrow neg p.$



To solve this problem I first considered that with a graph with $n$ vertices the maximum value of edges that we can get is when we consider the graph as a complete graph . But we have to deal with a disconnected graph. To obtain the maximal value of edges, I split the set of vertices into two partitions $X$ and $Y$ such that $Y$ = {v} where v $in$ $V$. This would mean that $|X| = |V|-1.$



Now, I compute the maximum number of edges that I can obtain from the graph $X: binom{|V| -1}{2}$. As it corresponds to the maximal value of edges that we can obtain (by respecting the conditions of the statement), it means that $|E| leq binom{|V| -1}{2}$.



Ps: I only removed one vertex because: the more I remove vertices, the less edges I will obtain.



Thank you in advance for your comments.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    math.stackexchange.com/questions/2680559/…
    $endgroup$
    – greedoid
    Jan 20 at 18:28










  • $begingroup$
    greedoid's link will give you an answer, but I also wanted to note some problems with your argument. First, when you write $Y={v|vin V}$, that means $Y=V$ in set theoretic language. What you should say is $Y={v}$ for some $vin V$, which means $Y$ contains only $v$. You also need to argue why partitioning the vertex set into $X$ and $Y$ like that will give the most edges.
    $endgroup$
    – Kevin Long
    Jan 20 at 18:33










  • $begingroup$
    Dear Kevin, thank you for your answer in fact I wrote in the way you proposed but my topic was edited. By the way in case it's not considered as admitted I will prove this by saying that If I consider a graph with 2 component X and Y such that |X| (= p) > |Y| ( = q) then if i remove one vertex from X so as to add it in the set Y the number of edges of this new graph will be lower because ${p-1}choose{2}$ + ${q+1}choose{2}$ <= ${p}choose{2}$ + ${q}choose{2}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Hugo Peyron
    Jan 20 at 19:35
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


I know that a similar exercice was already posted on this website but I would like to have a piece of advice concerning the method/way of thinking I used to solve this problem. I don't know if I can do this here or if I have to write in the comment of the exercice that was posted. Pardon in advance.





We have to prove a statement $p Rightarrow q.$ So as to do so I wanted to prove $neg q Rightarrow neg p.$



To solve this problem I first considered that with a graph with $n$ vertices the maximum value of edges that we can get is when we consider the graph as a complete graph . But we have to deal with a disconnected graph. To obtain the maximal value of edges, I split the set of vertices into two partitions $X$ and $Y$ such that $Y$ = {v} where v $in$ $V$. This would mean that $|X| = |V|-1.$



Now, I compute the maximum number of edges that I can obtain from the graph $X: binom{|V| -1}{2}$. As it corresponds to the maximal value of edges that we can obtain (by respecting the conditions of the statement), it means that $|E| leq binom{|V| -1}{2}$.



Ps: I only removed one vertex because: the more I remove vertices, the less edges I will obtain.



Thank you in advance for your comments.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I know that a similar exercice was already posted on this website but I would like to have a piece of advice concerning the method/way of thinking I used to solve this problem. I don't know if I can do this here or if I have to write in the comment of the exercice that was posted. Pardon in advance.





We have to prove a statement $p Rightarrow q.$ So as to do so I wanted to prove $neg q Rightarrow neg p.$



To solve this problem I first considered that with a graph with $n$ vertices the maximum value of edges that we can get is when we consider the graph as a complete graph . But we have to deal with a disconnected graph. To obtain the maximal value of edges, I split the set of vertices into two partitions $X$ and $Y$ such that $Y$ = {v} where v $in$ $V$. This would mean that $|X| = |V|-1.$



Now, I compute the maximum number of edges that I can obtain from the graph $X: binom{|V| -1}{2}$. As it corresponds to the maximal value of edges that we can obtain (by respecting the conditions of the statement), it means that $|E| leq binom{|V| -1}{2}$.



Ps: I only removed one vertex because: the more I remove vertices, the less edges I will obtain.



Thank you in advance for your comments.







discrete-mathematics graph-theory advice






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 20 at 18:44







Hugo Peyron

















asked Jan 20 at 18:14









Hugo PeyronHugo Peyron

244




244








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    math.stackexchange.com/questions/2680559/…
    $endgroup$
    – greedoid
    Jan 20 at 18:28










  • $begingroup$
    greedoid's link will give you an answer, but I also wanted to note some problems with your argument. First, when you write $Y={v|vin V}$, that means $Y=V$ in set theoretic language. What you should say is $Y={v}$ for some $vin V$, which means $Y$ contains only $v$. You also need to argue why partitioning the vertex set into $X$ and $Y$ like that will give the most edges.
    $endgroup$
    – Kevin Long
    Jan 20 at 18:33










  • $begingroup$
    Dear Kevin, thank you for your answer in fact I wrote in the way you proposed but my topic was edited. By the way in case it's not considered as admitted I will prove this by saying that If I consider a graph with 2 component X and Y such that |X| (= p) > |Y| ( = q) then if i remove one vertex from X so as to add it in the set Y the number of edges of this new graph will be lower because ${p-1}choose{2}$ + ${q+1}choose{2}$ <= ${p}choose{2}$ + ${q}choose{2}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Hugo Peyron
    Jan 20 at 19:35
















  • 2




    $begingroup$
    math.stackexchange.com/questions/2680559/…
    $endgroup$
    – greedoid
    Jan 20 at 18:28










  • $begingroup$
    greedoid's link will give you an answer, but I also wanted to note some problems with your argument. First, when you write $Y={v|vin V}$, that means $Y=V$ in set theoretic language. What you should say is $Y={v}$ for some $vin V$, which means $Y$ contains only $v$. You also need to argue why partitioning the vertex set into $X$ and $Y$ like that will give the most edges.
    $endgroup$
    – Kevin Long
    Jan 20 at 18:33










  • $begingroup$
    Dear Kevin, thank you for your answer in fact I wrote in the way you proposed but my topic was edited. By the way in case it's not considered as admitted I will prove this by saying that If I consider a graph with 2 component X and Y such that |X| (= p) > |Y| ( = q) then if i remove one vertex from X so as to add it in the set Y the number of edges of this new graph will be lower because ${p-1}choose{2}$ + ${q+1}choose{2}$ <= ${p}choose{2}$ + ${q}choose{2}$.
    $endgroup$
    – Hugo Peyron
    Jan 20 at 19:35










2




2




$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/2680559/…
$endgroup$
– greedoid
Jan 20 at 18:28




$begingroup$
math.stackexchange.com/questions/2680559/…
$endgroup$
– greedoid
Jan 20 at 18:28












$begingroup$
greedoid's link will give you an answer, but I also wanted to note some problems with your argument. First, when you write $Y={v|vin V}$, that means $Y=V$ in set theoretic language. What you should say is $Y={v}$ for some $vin V$, which means $Y$ contains only $v$. You also need to argue why partitioning the vertex set into $X$ and $Y$ like that will give the most edges.
$endgroup$
– Kevin Long
Jan 20 at 18:33




$begingroup$
greedoid's link will give you an answer, but I also wanted to note some problems with your argument. First, when you write $Y={v|vin V}$, that means $Y=V$ in set theoretic language. What you should say is $Y={v}$ for some $vin V$, which means $Y$ contains only $v$. You also need to argue why partitioning the vertex set into $X$ and $Y$ like that will give the most edges.
$endgroup$
– Kevin Long
Jan 20 at 18:33












$begingroup$
Dear Kevin, thank you for your answer in fact I wrote in the way you proposed but my topic was edited. By the way in case it's not considered as admitted I will prove this by saying that If I consider a graph with 2 component X and Y such that |X| (= p) > |Y| ( = q) then if i remove one vertex from X so as to add it in the set Y the number of edges of this new graph will be lower because ${p-1}choose{2}$ + ${q+1}choose{2}$ <= ${p}choose{2}$ + ${q}choose{2}$.
$endgroup$
– Hugo Peyron
Jan 20 at 19:35






$begingroup$
Dear Kevin, thank you for your answer in fact I wrote in the way you proposed but my topic was edited. By the way in case it's not considered as admitted I will prove this by saying that If I consider a graph with 2 component X and Y such that |X| (= p) > |Y| ( = q) then if i remove one vertex from X so as to add it in the set Y the number of edges of this new graph will be lower because ${p-1}choose{2}$ + ${q+1}choose{2}$ <= ${p}choose{2}$ + ${q}choose{2}$.
$endgroup$
– Hugo Peyron
Jan 20 at 19:35












1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

If the graph is not connected, then we can write $V=Xcup Y$ where $X,Y$ are non-empty and disjoint and there is no edge between vertices in $X$ and vertices in $Y$. While you are right that ultimately the numerically "worst case" does happen when $Y$ (or $X$) has only one element, you cannot assume in your proof that the sets do have this property to begin with. The structure and size of possible $X,Y$ is iven by the (given, arbitrary) graph and for a concrete graph may exclude that one of them has only one element. So in your proof, you will at some step have to show ${kchoose 2}+{n-kchoose 2}le{n-1choose 2}$ for all $k$ with $1le kle n-1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Dear Sir, thank you for your answer. I thought I could majorate this value |E| regardless of the given graph ( I wanted to say that |E| $in$ [0, Max_Value] and by removing only one vertex and considering the partition (with a number of vertices greater than one ) as a complete graph, I will find this Max_Value.
    $endgroup$
    – Hugo Peyron
    Jan 20 at 18:40













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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes









2












$begingroup$

If the graph is not connected, then we can write $V=Xcup Y$ where $X,Y$ are non-empty and disjoint and there is no edge between vertices in $X$ and vertices in $Y$. While you are right that ultimately the numerically "worst case" does happen when $Y$ (or $X$) has only one element, you cannot assume in your proof that the sets do have this property to begin with. The structure and size of possible $X,Y$ is iven by the (given, arbitrary) graph and for a concrete graph may exclude that one of them has only one element. So in your proof, you will at some step have to show ${kchoose 2}+{n-kchoose 2}le{n-1choose 2}$ for all $k$ with $1le kle n-1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Dear Sir, thank you for your answer. I thought I could majorate this value |E| regardless of the given graph ( I wanted to say that |E| $in$ [0, Max_Value] and by removing only one vertex and considering the partition (with a number of vertices greater than one ) as a complete graph, I will find this Max_Value.
    $endgroup$
    – Hugo Peyron
    Jan 20 at 18:40


















2












$begingroup$

If the graph is not connected, then we can write $V=Xcup Y$ where $X,Y$ are non-empty and disjoint and there is no edge between vertices in $X$ and vertices in $Y$. While you are right that ultimately the numerically "worst case" does happen when $Y$ (or $X$) has only one element, you cannot assume in your proof that the sets do have this property to begin with. The structure and size of possible $X,Y$ is iven by the (given, arbitrary) graph and for a concrete graph may exclude that one of them has only one element. So in your proof, you will at some step have to show ${kchoose 2}+{n-kchoose 2}le{n-1choose 2}$ for all $k$ with $1le kle n-1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    Dear Sir, thank you for your answer. I thought I could majorate this value |E| regardless of the given graph ( I wanted to say that |E| $in$ [0, Max_Value] and by removing only one vertex and considering the partition (with a number of vertices greater than one ) as a complete graph, I will find this Max_Value.
    $endgroup$
    – Hugo Peyron
    Jan 20 at 18:40
















2












2








2





$begingroup$

If the graph is not connected, then we can write $V=Xcup Y$ where $X,Y$ are non-empty and disjoint and there is no edge between vertices in $X$ and vertices in $Y$. While you are right that ultimately the numerically "worst case" does happen when $Y$ (or $X$) has only one element, you cannot assume in your proof that the sets do have this property to begin with. The structure and size of possible $X,Y$ is iven by the (given, arbitrary) graph and for a concrete graph may exclude that one of them has only one element. So in your proof, you will at some step have to show ${kchoose 2}+{n-kchoose 2}le{n-1choose 2}$ for all $k$ with $1le kle n-1$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



If the graph is not connected, then we can write $V=Xcup Y$ where $X,Y$ are non-empty and disjoint and there is no edge between vertices in $X$ and vertices in $Y$. While you are right that ultimately the numerically "worst case" does happen when $Y$ (or $X$) has only one element, you cannot assume in your proof that the sets do have this property to begin with. The structure and size of possible $X,Y$ is iven by the (given, arbitrary) graph and for a concrete graph may exclude that one of them has only one element. So in your proof, you will at some step have to show ${kchoose 2}+{n-kchoose 2}le{n-1choose 2}$ for all $k$ with $1le kle n-1$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Jan 20 at 18:33









Hagen von EitzenHagen von Eitzen

282k23272505




282k23272505












  • $begingroup$
    Dear Sir, thank you for your answer. I thought I could majorate this value |E| regardless of the given graph ( I wanted to say that |E| $in$ [0, Max_Value] and by removing only one vertex and considering the partition (with a number of vertices greater than one ) as a complete graph, I will find this Max_Value.
    $endgroup$
    – Hugo Peyron
    Jan 20 at 18:40




















  • $begingroup$
    Dear Sir, thank you for your answer. I thought I could majorate this value |E| regardless of the given graph ( I wanted to say that |E| $in$ [0, Max_Value] and by removing only one vertex and considering the partition (with a number of vertices greater than one ) as a complete graph, I will find this Max_Value.
    $endgroup$
    – Hugo Peyron
    Jan 20 at 18:40


















$begingroup$
Dear Sir, thank you for your answer. I thought I could majorate this value |E| regardless of the given graph ( I wanted to say that |E| $in$ [0, Max_Value] and by removing only one vertex and considering the partition (with a number of vertices greater than one ) as a complete graph, I will find this Max_Value.
$endgroup$
– Hugo Peyron
Jan 20 at 18:40






$begingroup$
Dear Sir, thank you for your answer. I thought I could majorate this value |E| regardless of the given graph ( I wanted to say that |E| $in$ [0, Max_Value] and by removing only one vertex and considering the partition (with a number of vertices greater than one ) as a complete graph, I will find this Max_Value.
$endgroup$
– Hugo Peyron
Jan 20 at 18:40




















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