Laplace transform $mathcal L(f^{(k)})(z)=z^k mathcal L (f)(z)-sum_{j=0}^{k-1}f^{(j)}(0)z^{k-1-j}$












0












$begingroup$


Let $f in C^k[0,+infty)$ and $ sigma(f):=inf{s in mathbb{R}:exp(-st)f(t) in L^1[0,+infty)}$.



I want to show that for $Re z>max_{j=0,ldots,k}sigma(f^{(j)})$



$$mathcal L(f^{(k)})(z)=z^k mathcal L (f)(z)-sum_{j=0}^{k-1}f^{(j)}(0)z^{k-1-j}$$



I tried the following, using induction and partial integration. I used the induction hypothesis in the third step.



my attempt



Can this be done like this? And does $e^{-zt}f^{(k-1)}(t)$ equal $0$ when plugging for $t=infty$?










share|cite|improve this question









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    0












    $begingroup$


    Let $f in C^k[0,+infty)$ and $ sigma(f):=inf{s in mathbb{R}:exp(-st)f(t) in L^1[0,+infty)}$.



    I want to show that for $Re z>max_{j=0,ldots,k}sigma(f^{(j)})$



    $$mathcal L(f^{(k)})(z)=z^k mathcal L (f)(z)-sum_{j=0}^{k-1}f^{(j)}(0)z^{k-1-j}$$



    I tried the following, using induction and partial integration. I used the induction hypothesis in the third step.



    my attempt



    Can this be done like this? And does $e^{-zt}f^{(k-1)}(t)$ equal $0$ when plugging for $t=infty$?










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      Let $f in C^k[0,+infty)$ and $ sigma(f):=inf{s in mathbb{R}:exp(-st)f(t) in L^1[0,+infty)}$.



      I want to show that for $Re z>max_{j=0,ldots,k}sigma(f^{(j)})$



      $$mathcal L(f^{(k)})(z)=z^k mathcal L (f)(z)-sum_{j=0}^{k-1}f^{(j)}(0)z^{k-1-j}$$



      I tried the following, using induction and partial integration. I used the induction hypothesis in the third step.



      my attempt



      Can this be done like this? And does $e^{-zt}f^{(k-1)}(t)$ equal $0$ when plugging for $t=infty$?










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      Let $f in C^k[0,+infty)$ and $ sigma(f):=inf{s in mathbb{R}:exp(-st)f(t) in L^1[0,+infty)}$.



      I want to show that for $Re z>max_{j=0,ldots,k}sigma(f^{(j)})$



      $$mathcal L(f^{(k)})(z)=z^k mathcal L (f)(z)-sum_{j=0}^{k-1}f^{(j)}(0)z^{k-1-j}$$



      I tried the following, using induction and partial integration. I used the induction hypothesis in the third step.



      my attempt



      Can this be done like this? And does $e^{-zt}f^{(k-1)}(t)$ equal $0$ when plugging for $t=infty$?







      real-analysis complex-analysis laplace-transform






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      asked Jan 27 at 14:42









      user636610user636610

      82




      82






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          Well, first of all if we define
          $$
          F(z) = mathcal{L}(f)(z)
          $$

          The basic case for $k = 0$ essentially follows from the definition above. Now if you assume
          $$
          mathcal L(f^{(k-1)})(z)=z^{k-1} F(z) -sum_{j=0}^{k-2}f^{(j)}(0)z^{k-1-j}
          $$

          you can use integration by parts for case $k$ since
          $$
          mathcal{L}(f^{(k)})(z) = mathcal{L}(Df^{(k-1)})(z) = left. f^{(k-1)}(t)e^{-zt} right|_{0}^{+infty} + z mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z) = -f^{(k-1)}(0) + z mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z),
          $$

          here $D$ denotes the differential operator. If you substitute to $mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z)$ the expression given by your inductive hypothesis you'll get your results.



          Of course to make the integrals valid you need to use your other assumptions, I just focused on the calculations.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            What you do can be formulated as "generalized integration by parts" proofwiki.org/wiki/Generalized_Integration_by_Parts
            $endgroup$
            – Jean Marie
            Feb 12 at 11:52











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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          0












          $begingroup$

          Well, first of all if we define
          $$
          F(z) = mathcal{L}(f)(z)
          $$

          The basic case for $k = 0$ essentially follows from the definition above. Now if you assume
          $$
          mathcal L(f^{(k-1)})(z)=z^{k-1} F(z) -sum_{j=0}^{k-2}f^{(j)}(0)z^{k-1-j}
          $$

          you can use integration by parts for case $k$ since
          $$
          mathcal{L}(f^{(k)})(z) = mathcal{L}(Df^{(k-1)})(z) = left. f^{(k-1)}(t)e^{-zt} right|_{0}^{+infty} + z mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z) = -f^{(k-1)}(0) + z mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z),
          $$

          here $D$ denotes the differential operator. If you substitute to $mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z)$ the expression given by your inductive hypothesis you'll get your results.



          Of course to make the integrals valid you need to use your other assumptions, I just focused on the calculations.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            What you do can be formulated as "generalized integration by parts" proofwiki.org/wiki/Generalized_Integration_by_Parts
            $endgroup$
            – Jean Marie
            Feb 12 at 11:52
















          0












          $begingroup$

          Well, first of all if we define
          $$
          F(z) = mathcal{L}(f)(z)
          $$

          The basic case for $k = 0$ essentially follows from the definition above. Now if you assume
          $$
          mathcal L(f^{(k-1)})(z)=z^{k-1} F(z) -sum_{j=0}^{k-2}f^{(j)}(0)z^{k-1-j}
          $$

          you can use integration by parts for case $k$ since
          $$
          mathcal{L}(f^{(k)})(z) = mathcal{L}(Df^{(k-1)})(z) = left. f^{(k-1)}(t)e^{-zt} right|_{0}^{+infty} + z mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z) = -f^{(k-1)}(0) + z mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z),
          $$

          here $D$ denotes the differential operator. If you substitute to $mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z)$ the expression given by your inductive hypothesis you'll get your results.



          Of course to make the integrals valid you need to use your other assumptions, I just focused on the calculations.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            What you do can be formulated as "generalized integration by parts" proofwiki.org/wiki/Generalized_Integration_by_Parts
            $endgroup$
            – Jean Marie
            Feb 12 at 11:52














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Well, first of all if we define
          $$
          F(z) = mathcal{L}(f)(z)
          $$

          The basic case for $k = 0$ essentially follows from the definition above. Now if you assume
          $$
          mathcal L(f^{(k-1)})(z)=z^{k-1} F(z) -sum_{j=0}^{k-2}f^{(j)}(0)z^{k-1-j}
          $$

          you can use integration by parts for case $k$ since
          $$
          mathcal{L}(f^{(k)})(z) = mathcal{L}(Df^{(k-1)})(z) = left. f^{(k-1)}(t)e^{-zt} right|_{0}^{+infty} + z mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z) = -f^{(k-1)}(0) + z mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z),
          $$

          here $D$ denotes the differential operator. If you substitute to $mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z)$ the expression given by your inductive hypothesis you'll get your results.



          Of course to make the integrals valid you need to use your other assumptions, I just focused on the calculations.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Well, first of all if we define
          $$
          F(z) = mathcal{L}(f)(z)
          $$

          The basic case for $k = 0$ essentially follows from the definition above. Now if you assume
          $$
          mathcal L(f^{(k-1)})(z)=z^{k-1} F(z) -sum_{j=0}^{k-2}f^{(j)}(0)z^{k-1-j}
          $$

          you can use integration by parts for case $k$ since
          $$
          mathcal{L}(f^{(k)})(z) = mathcal{L}(Df^{(k-1)})(z) = left. f^{(k-1)}(t)e^{-zt} right|_{0}^{+infty} + z mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z) = -f^{(k-1)}(0) + z mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z),
          $$

          here $D$ denotes the differential operator. If you substitute to $mathcal{L}(f^{(k-1)})(z)$ the expression given by your inductive hypothesis you'll get your results.



          Of course to make the integrals valid you need to use your other assumptions, I just focused on the calculations.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 27 at 14:56









          user8469759user8469759

          1,5681618




          1,5681618












          • $begingroup$
            What you do can be formulated as "generalized integration by parts" proofwiki.org/wiki/Generalized_Integration_by_Parts
            $endgroup$
            – Jean Marie
            Feb 12 at 11:52


















          • $begingroup$
            What you do can be formulated as "generalized integration by parts" proofwiki.org/wiki/Generalized_Integration_by_Parts
            $endgroup$
            – Jean Marie
            Feb 12 at 11:52
















          $begingroup$
          What you do can be formulated as "generalized integration by parts" proofwiki.org/wiki/Generalized_Integration_by_Parts
          $endgroup$
          – Jean Marie
          Feb 12 at 11:52




          $begingroup$
          What you do can be formulated as "generalized integration by parts" proofwiki.org/wiki/Generalized_Integration_by_Parts
          $endgroup$
          – Jean Marie
          Feb 12 at 11:52


















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