Uniqueness of representation of elements of quotient by minimal polynomial in a polynomial ring












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Let $F$ be a subfield of $K$. It is easy to see that if $alpha $ is algebraic over $F$, then its minimal polynomial $p(x)$ is (monic) unique and irreducible.



Taking the quotient, $F[x]/p(x)F[x]$ is a field (as $p(x)$ is irreducible), and any element $gin F$ can be represented uniquely as $p(x)F(x)$+ a polynomial of $degree<n$, where $n=deg p(x).$

I can immediately see that if instead of taking the minimal polynomial $p(x)$, we take any polynomial $f$ and quotient by its ideal $(f)$, we get a ring (not necessarly a field).



In this case, the representation does not need to be unique, right?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    yes, thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Leonte
    Jul 6 '17 at 17:44










  • $begingroup$
    The representation of what is not unique ? $ mathbb{Q}[x]/(x^2+1) cong mathbb{Q}(i) = mathbb{Q}(di+e) cong mathbb{Q}[x]/(ax^2+bx+c)$ whenever $frac{b^2-4ac}{4a^2} = -d^2$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jul 6 '17 at 17:47












  • $begingroup$
    any element $g in F[x] $ can be repesented ,by quotinent, $F[x]/p(x)F[x]$ as ${a_0+a_1*x+...+a_{n-1}*x^{n-1}}$. Is this representations unique if $f$ is a random poly?
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Leonte
    Jul 6 '17 at 21:52












  • $begingroup$
    Yes of course it is unique : the elements of the quotient are of the form ${ f(x) + (p(x)), deg(f) < deg(p) }$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jul 6 '17 at 23:10


















1












$begingroup$


Let $F$ be a subfield of $K$. It is easy to see that if $alpha $ is algebraic over $F$, then its minimal polynomial $p(x)$ is (monic) unique and irreducible.



Taking the quotient, $F[x]/p(x)F[x]$ is a field (as $p(x)$ is irreducible), and any element $gin F$ can be represented uniquely as $p(x)F(x)$+ a polynomial of $degree<n$, where $n=deg p(x).$

I can immediately see that if instead of taking the minimal polynomial $p(x)$, we take any polynomial $f$ and quotient by its ideal $(f)$, we get a ring (not necessarly a field).



In this case, the representation does not need to be unique, right?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    yes, thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Leonte
    Jul 6 '17 at 17:44










  • $begingroup$
    The representation of what is not unique ? $ mathbb{Q}[x]/(x^2+1) cong mathbb{Q}(i) = mathbb{Q}(di+e) cong mathbb{Q}[x]/(ax^2+bx+c)$ whenever $frac{b^2-4ac}{4a^2} = -d^2$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jul 6 '17 at 17:47












  • $begingroup$
    any element $g in F[x] $ can be repesented ,by quotinent, $F[x]/p(x)F[x]$ as ${a_0+a_1*x+...+a_{n-1}*x^{n-1}}$. Is this representations unique if $f$ is a random poly?
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Leonte
    Jul 6 '17 at 21:52












  • $begingroup$
    Yes of course it is unique : the elements of the quotient are of the form ${ f(x) + (p(x)), deg(f) < deg(p) }$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jul 6 '17 at 23:10
















1












1








1





$begingroup$


Let $F$ be a subfield of $K$. It is easy to see that if $alpha $ is algebraic over $F$, then its minimal polynomial $p(x)$ is (monic) unique and irreducible.



Taking the quotient, $F[x]/p(x)F[x]$ is a field (as $p(x)$ is irreducible), and any element $gin F$ can be represented uniquely as $p(x)F(x)$+ a polynomial of $degree<n$, where $n=deg p(x).$

I can immediately see that if instead of taking the minimal polynomial $p(x)$, we take any polynomial $f$ and quotient by its ideal $(f)$, we get a ring (not necessarly a field).



In this case, the representation does not need to be unique, right?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $F$ be a subfield of $K$. It is easy to see that if $alpha $ is algebraic over $F$, then its minimal polynomial $p(x)$ is (monic) unique and irreducible.



Taking the quotient, $F[x]/p(x)F[x]$ is a field (as $p(x)$ is irreducible), and any element $gin F$ can be represented uniquely as $p(x)F(x)$+ a polynomial of $degree<n$, where $n=deg p(x).$

I can immediately see that if instead of taking the minimal polynomial $p(x)$, we take any polynomial $f$ and quotient by its ideal $(f)$, we get a ring (not necessarly a field).



In this case, the representation does not need to be unique, right?







abstract-algebra polynomials ring-theory field-theory






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edited Jan 25 at 6:41









Eric Wofsey

190k14216347




190k14216347










asked Jul 6 '17 at 17:40









Dan LeonteDan Leonte

1338




1338












  • $begingroup$
    yes, thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Leonte
    Jul 6 '17 at 17:44










  • $begingroup$
    The representation of what is not unique ? $ mathbb{Q}[x]/(x^2+1) cong mathbb{Q}(i) = mathbb{Q}(di+e) cong mathbb{Q}[x]/(ax^2+bx+c)$ whenever $frac{b^2-4ac}{4a^2} = -d^2$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jul 6 '17 at 17:47












  • $begingroup$
    any element $g in F[x] $ can be repesented ,by quotinent, $F[x]/p(x)F[x]$ as ${a_0+a_1*x+...+a_{n-1}*x^{n-1}}$. Is this representations unique if $f$ is a random poly?
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Leonte
    Jul 6 '17 at 21:52












  • $begingroup$
    Yes of course it is unique : the elements of the quotient are of the form ${ f(x) + (p(x)), deg(f) < deg(p) }$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jul 6 '17 at 23:10




















  • $begingroup$
    yes, thank you.
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Leonte
    Jul 6 '17 at 17:44










  • $begingroup$
    The representation of what is not unique ? $ mathbb{Q}[x]/(x^2+1) cong mathbb{Q}(i) = mathbb{Q}(di+e) cong mathbb{Q}[x]/(ax^2+bx+c)$ whenever $frac{b^2-4ac}{4a^2} = -d^2$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jul 6 '17 at 17:47












  • $begingroup$
    any element $g in F[x] $ can be repesented ,by quotinent, $F[x]/p(x)F[x]$ as ${a_0+a_1*x+...+a_{n-1}*x^{n-1}}$. Is this representations unique if $f$ is a random poly?
    $endgroup$
    – Dan Leonte
    Jul 6 '17 at 21:52












  • $begingroup$
    Yes of course it is unique : the elements of the quotient are of the form ${ f(x) + (p(x)), deg(f) < deg(p) }$
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jul 6 '17 at 23:10


















$begingroup$
yes, thank you.
$endgroup$
– Dan Leonte
Jul 6 '17 at 17:44




$begingroup$
yes, thank you.
$endgroup$
– Dan Leonte
Jul 6 '17 at 17:44












$begingroup$
The representation of what is not unique ? $ mathbb{Q}[x]/(x^2+1) cong mathbb{Q}(i) = mathbb{Q}(di+e) cong mathbb{Q}[x]/(ax^2+bx+c)$ whenever $frac{b^2-4ac}{4a^2} = -d^2$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Jul 6 '17 at 17:47






$begingroup$
The representation of what is not unique ? $ mathbb{Q}[x]/(x^2+1) cong mathbb{Q}(i) = mathbb{Q}(di+e) cong mathbb{Q}[x]/(ax^2+bx+c)$ whenever $frac{b^2-4ac}{4a^2} = -d^2$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Jul 6 '17 at 17:47














$begingroup$
any element $g in F[x] $ can be repesented ,by quotinent, $F[x]/p(x)F[x]$ as ${a_0+a_1*x+...+a_{n-1}*x^{n-1}}$. Is this representations unique if $f$ is a random poly?
$endgroup$
– Dan Leonte
Jul 6 '17 at 21:52






$begingroup$
any element $g in F[x] $ can be repesented ,by quotinent, $F[x]/p(x)F[x]$ as ${a_0+a_1*x+...+a_{n-1}*x^{n-1}}$. Is this representations unique if $f$ is a random poly?
$endgroup$
– Dan Leonte
Jul 6 '17 at 21:52














$begingroup$
Yes of course it is unique : the elements of the quotient are of the form ${ f(x) + (p(x)), deg(f) < deg(p) }$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Jul 6 '17 at 23:10






$begingroup$
Yes of course it is unique : the elements of the quotient are of the form ${ f(x) + (p(x)), deg(f) < deg(p) }$
$endgroup$
– reuns
Jul 6 '17 at 23:10












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No, the representation is unique regardless of what (nonzero) polynomial $f$ is. For any polynomials $f$ and $g$ with $f$ nonzero, there exist unique polynomials $q$ and $r$ with $deg r<deg f$ such that $$g=qf+r.$$ This is just the statement of polynomial division with remainder, which has nothing to do with whether the polynomials are irreducible.






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    $begingroup$

    No, the representation is unique regardless of what (nonzero) polynomial $f$ is. For any polynomials $f$ and $g$ with $f$ nonzero, there exist unique polynomials $q$ and $r$ with $deg r<deg f$ such that $$g=qf+r.$$ This is just the statement of polynomial division with remainder, which has nothing to do with whether the polynomials are irreducible.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      $begingroup$

      No, the representation is unique regardless of what (nonzero) polynomial $f$ is. For any polynomials $f$ and $g$ with $f$ nonzero, there exist unique polynomials $q$ and $r$ with $deg r<deg f$ such that $$g=qf+r.$$ This is just the statement of polynomial division with remainder, which has nothing to do with whether the polynomials are irreducible.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















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        $begingroup$

        No, the representation is unique regardless of what (nonzero) polynomial $f$ is. For any polynomials $f$ and $g$ with $f$ nonzero, there exist unique polynomials $q$ and $r$ with $deg r<deg f$ such that $$g=qf+r.$$ This is just the statement of polynomial division with remainder, which has nothing to do with whether the polynomials are irreducible.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        No, the representation is unique regardless of what (nonzero) polynomial $f$ is. For any polynomials $f$ and $g$ with $f$ nonzero, there exist unique polynomials $q$ and $r$ with $deg r<deg f$ such that $$g=qf+r.$$ This is just the statement of polynomial division with remainder, which has nothing to do with whether the polynomials are irreducible.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jul 6 '17 at 21:57









        Eric WofseyEric Wofsey

        190k14216347




        190k14216347






























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