Use Energy Method to prove the uniqueness of the initial boundary value problem












1












$begingroup$


I am really stuck in this proof. Any hint or suggestion from you would be appreciated.



Let $U subset Bbb{R^{n}}$ be open, bounded, with smooth boundary $partial U$, and $ T gt 0$. Use energy method to prove that the initial boundary-value problem



$u_{t}-Delta u =f$ in $U_{T}$



$frac{partial u}{partial nu}=0$ on $partial U times [0,T]$



$u=g$ on $U times {t=0}$



,where $f=f(x,t),g=g(x) $ are given smooth functions, has at most one solution $u in C^{2}_{1}$ $(overline U_{T})$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    1












    $begingroup$


    I am really stuck in this proof. Any hint or suggestion from you would be appreciated.



    Let $U subset Bbb{R^{n}}$ be open, bounded, with smooth boundary $partial U$, and $ T gt 0$. Use energy method to prove that the initial boundary-value problem



    $u_{t}-Delta u =f$ in $U_{T}$



    $frac{partial u}{partial nu}=0$ on $partial U times [0,T]$



    $u=g$ on $U times {t=0}$



    ,where $f=f(x,t),g=g(x) $ are given smooth functions, has at most one solution $u in C^{2}_{1}$ $(overline U_{T})$










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I am really stuck in this proof. Any hint or suggestion from you would be appreciated.



      Let $U subset Bbb{R^{n}}$ be open, bounded, with smooth boundary $partial U$, and $ T gt 0$. Use energy method to prove that the initial boundary-value problem



      $u_{t}-Delta u =f$ in $U_{T}$



      $frac{partial u}{partial nu}=0$ on $partial U times [0,T]$



      $u=g$ on $U times {t=0}$



      ,where $f=f(x,t),g=g(x) $ are given smooth functions, has at most one solution $u in C^{2}_{1}$ $(overline U_{T})$










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I am really stuck in this proof. Any hint or suggestion from you would be appreciated.



      Let $U subset Bbb{R^{n}}$ be open, bounded, with smooth boundary $partial U$, and $ T gt 0$. Use energy method to prove that the initial boundary-value problem



      $u_{t}-Delta u =f$ in $U_{T}$



      $frac{partial u}{partial nu}=0$ on $partial U times [0,T]$



      $u=g$ on $U times {t=0}$



      ,where $f=f(x,t),g=g(x) $ are given smooth functions, has at most one solution $u in C^{2}_{1}$ $(overline U_{T})$







      pde






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 25 at 7:55









      dmtri

      1,6792521




      1,6792521










      asked Dec 6 '13 at 15:25









      YangYang

      206417




      206417






















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          1












          $begingroup$

          HINT: Start by assume you have two solutions $u_{1}$ and $u_{2}$ for the given problem, and show that $u=u_{1}-u_{2}$ is identically 0, because $u$ satisfies $u_{t}=Delta u$, with $u$ having 0 boundary data. The trick to showing $u$ is the zero function is to integrate $u_{t}-Delta u$ against $u$, for example, and use something like $ u Delta u = nablacdot (unabla u)-nabla ucdotnabla u$. Then follow your nose using Calculus identities and use the fact that you have 0 boundary data.



          So suppose $u_{1}$ and $u_{2}$ are solutions of the problem. Then $u=u_{1}-u_{2}$ satisfies
          $$
          u_{t}-Delta u = 0,;;; frac{partial u}{partialnu}=0 mbox{ on } partial U times [0,T], ;;; u = 0 mbox{ on } U times { t= 0}.
          $$
          Therefore,
          $$
          0=int_{U}uu_{t}-uDelta u,dx = int_{U}uu_{t}-nablacdot(unabla u)+|nabla u|^{2},dx
          $$
          $$ = int_{U}uu_{t}+|nabla u|^{2},dx-int_{partial U}ufrac{partial u}{partialnu},dS(x),
          $$
          where $dS$ is the surface area element on $partial U$. (This is Gauss' Divergence Theorem.) Because $frac{partial u}{partial nu}=0$ on $partial U$ and $2uu_{t}=(u^{2})_{t}$, the above becomes
          $$
          0 = int_{U}frac{1}{2}frac{partial}{partial t}u^{2}+|nabla u|^{2}dx
          $$
          Now integrate the above on $[0,t']$ for any $0 le t' le T$, and use the fact that $u(x,t)|_{t=0}=0$:
          $$
          0 = int_{U}frac{1}{2}|u(x,t')|^{2},dx +int_{0}^{t'}int_{U}|nabla u(x,t)|^{2}dxdt.
          $$
          Both terms on the right are non-negative and, therefore, both must be separately 0. Just considering the first term leads to the conclusion that $u=0$ for all $x in U$ and $0 le t' le T$ because $u$ is continuous. Therefore $u_{1}=u_{2}$ as desired.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. However, I have a question. I know how to show $u=u_1-u_2 =0$ in $U_{T}$ and $U times {t=0}$. Can you give me some ideas on how to show u is zero on another boundary. Thank you@T.A.E.
            $endgroup$
            – Yang
            Dec 6 '13 at 16:18










          • $begingroup$
            Once you know that the integral of a continuous function is 0 over the open region, then you know that the function must be 0. For example, if you can show that the square of the length of the gradient is 0 over the open region, then the gradient must be 0 because it is assumed continuous. So you conclude that the function must be a constant because all of its first order derivatives are 0. You can use line integrals to conclude this. Etc.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 6 '13 at 19:51










          • $begingroup$
            I noticed that I wrote the integral of a continuous function when I meant integral of the square of a continuous function. Big difference, and the latter applies to your case.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 7 '13 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            Can I ask you how I can apply the energy method to do this proof? Thanks@T.A.E.
            $endgroup$
            – Yang
            Dec 8 '13 at 4:14










          • $begingroup$
            I added more detail for you.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 8 '13 at 7:01











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          1












          $begingroup$

          HINT: Start by assume you have two solutions $u_{1}$ and $u_{2}$ for the given problem, and show that $u=u_{1}-u_{2}$ is identically 0, because $u$ satisfies $u_{t}=Delta u$, with $u$ having 0 boundary data. The trick to showing $u$ is the zero function is to integrate $u_{t}-Delta u$ against $u$, for example, and use something like $ u Delta u = nablacdot (unabla u)-nabla ucdotnabla u$. Then follow your nose using Calculus identities and use the fact that you have 0 boundary data.



          So suppose $u_{1}$ and $u_{2}$ are solutions of the problem. Then $u=u_{1}-u_{2}$ satisfies
          $$
          u_{t}-Delta u = 0,;;; frac{partial u}{partialnu}=0 mbox{ on } partial U times [0,T], ;;; u = 0 mbox{ on } U times { t= 0}.
          $$
          Therefore,
          $$
          0=int_{U}uu_{t}-uDelta u,dx = int_{U}uu_{t}-nablacdot(unabla u)+|nabla u|^{2},dx
          $$
          $$ = int_{U}uu_{t}+|nabla u|^{2},dx-int_{partial U}ufrac{partial u}{partialnu},dS(x),
          $$
          where $dS$ is the surface area element on $partial U$. (This is Gauss' Divergence Theorem.) Because $frac{partial u}{partial nu}=0$ on $partial U$ and $2uu_{t}=(u^{2})_{t}$, the above becomes
          $$
          0 = int_{U}frac{1}{2}frac{partial}{partial t}u^{2}+|nabla u|^{2}dx
          $$
          Now integrate the above on $[0,t']$ for any $0 le t' le T$, and use the fact that $u(x,t)|_{t=0}=0$:
          $$
          0 = int_{U}frac{1}{2}|u(x,t')|^{2},dx +int_{0}^{t'}int_{U}|nabla u(x,t)|^{2}dxdt.
          $$
          Both terms on the right are non-negative and, therefore, both must be separately 0. Just considering the first term leads to the conclusion that $u=0$ for all $x in U$ and $0 le t' le T$ because $u$ is continuous. Therefore $u_{1}=u_{2}$ as desired.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. However, I have a question. I know how to show $u=u_1-u_2 =0$ in $U_{T}$ and $U times {t=0}$. Can you give me some ideas on how to show u is zero on another boundary. Thank you@T.A.E.
            $endgroup$
            – Yang
            Dec 6 '13 at 16:18










          • $begingroup$
            Once you know that the integral of a continuous function is 0 over the open region, then you know that the function must be 0. For example, if you can show that the square of the length of the gradient is 0 over the open region, then the gradient must be 0 because it is assumed continuous. So you conclude that the function must be a constant because all of its first order derivatives are 0. You can use line integrals to conclude this. Etc.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 6 '13 at 19:51










          • $begingroup$
            I noticed that I wrote the integral of a continuous function when I meant integral of the square of a continuous function. Big difference, and the latter applies to your case.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 7 '13 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            Can I ask you how I can apply the energy method to do this proof? Thanks@T.A.E.
            $endgroup$
            – Yang
            Dec 8 '13 at 4:14










          • $begingroup$
            I added more detail for you.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 8 '13 at 7:01
















          1












          $begingroup$

          HINT: Start by assume you have two solutions $u_{1}$ and $u_{2}$ for the given problem, and show that $u=u_{1}-u_{2}$ is identically 0, because $u$ satisfies $u_{t}=Delta u$, with $u$ having 0 boundary data. The trick to showing $u$ is the zero function is to integrate $u_{t}-Delta u$ against $u$, for example, and use something like $ u Delta u = nablacdot (unabla u)-nabla ucdotnabla u$. Then follow your nose using Calculus identities and use the fact that you have 0 boundary data.



          So suppose $u_{1}$ and $u_{2}$ are solutions of the problem. Then $u=u_{1}-u_{2}$ satisfies
          $$
          u_{t}-Delta u = 0,;;; frac{partial u}{partialnu}=0 mbox{ on } partial U times [0,T], ;;; u = 0 mbox{ on } U times { t= 0}.
          $$
          Therefore,
          $$
          0=int_{U}uu_{t}-uDelta u,dx = int_{U}uu_{t}-nablacdot(unabla u)+|nabla u|^{2},dx
          $$
          $$ = int_{U}uu_{t}+|nabla u|^{2},dx-int_{partial U}ufrac{partial u}{partialnu},dS(x),
          $$
          where $dS$ is the surface area element on $partial U$. (This is Gauss' Divergence Theorem.) Because $frac{partial u}{partial nu}=0$ on $partial U$ and $2uu_{t}=(u^{2})_{t}$, the above becomes
          $$
          0 = int_{U}frac{1}{2}frac{partial}{partial t}u^{2}+|nabla u|^{2}dx
          $$
          Now integrate the above on $[0,t']$ for any $0 le t' le T$, and use the fact that $u(x,t)|_{t=0}=0$:
          $$
          0 = int_{U}frac{1}{2}|u(x,t')|^{2},dx +int_{0}^{t'}int_{U}|nabla u(x,t)|^{2}dxdt.
          $$
          Both terms on the right are non-negative and, therefore, both must be separately 0. Just considering the first term leads to the conclusion that $u=0$ for all $x in U$ and $0 le t' le T$ because $u$ is continuous. Therefore $u_{1}=u_{2}$ as desired.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. However, I have a question. I know how to show $u=u_1-u_2 =0$ in $U_{T}$ and $U times {t=0}$. Can you give me some ideas on how to show u is zero on another boundary. Thank you@T.A.E.
            $endgroup$
            – Yang
            Dec 6 '13 at 16:18










          • $begingroup$
            Once you know that the integral of a continuous function is 0 over the open region, then you know that the function must be 0. For example, if you can show that the square of the length of the gradient is 0 over the open region, then the gradient must be 0 because it is assumed continuous. So you conclude that the function must be a constant because all of its first order derivatives are 0. You can use line integrals to conclude this. Etc.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 6 '13 at 19:51










          • $begingroup$
            I noticed that I wrote the integral of a continuous function when I meant integral of the square of a continuous function. Big difference, and the latter applies to your case.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 7 '13 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            Can I ask you how I can apply the energy method to do this proof? Thanks@T.A.E.
            $endgroup$
            – Yang
            Dec 8 '13 at 4:14










          • $begingroup$
            I added more detail for you.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 8 '13 at 7:01














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          HINT: Start by assume you have two solutions $u_{1}$ and $u_{2}$ for the given problem, and show that $u=u_{1}-u_{2}$ is identically 0, because $u$ satisfies $u_{t}=Delta u$, with $u$ having 0 boundary data. The trick to showing $u$ is the zero function is to integrate $u_{t}-Delta u$ against $u$, for example, and use something like $ u Delta u = nablacdot (unabla u)-nabla ucdotnabla u$. Then follow your nose using Calculus identities and use the fact that you have 0 boundary data.



          So suppose $u_{1}$ and $u_{2}$ are solutions of the problem. Then $u=u_{1}-u_{2}$ satisfies
          $$
          u_{t}-Delta u = 0,;;; frac{partial u}{partialnu}=0 mbox{ on } partial U times [0,T], ;;; u = 0 mbox{ on } U times { t= 0}.
          $$
          Therefore,
          $$
          0=int_{U}uu_{t}-uDelta u,dx = int_{U}uu_{t}-nablacdot(unabla u)+|nabla u|^{2},dx
          $$
          $$ = int_{U}uu_{t}+|nabla u|^{2},dx-int_{partial U}ufrac{partial u}{partialnu},dS(x),
          $$
          where $dS$ is the surface area element on $partial U$. (This is Gauss' Divergence Theorem.) Because $frac{partial u}{partial nu}=0$ on $partial U$ and $2uu_{t}=(u^{2})_{t}$, the above becomes
          $$
          0 = int_{U}frac{1}{2}frac{partial}{partial t}u^{2}+|nabla u|^{2}dx
          $$
          Now integrate the above on $[0,t']$ for any $0 le t' le T$, and use the fact that $u(x,t)|_{t=0}=0$:
          $$
          0 = int_{U}frac{1}{2}|u(x,t')|^{2},dx +int_{0}^{t'}int_{U}|nabla u(x,t)|^{2}dxdt.
          $$
          Both terms on the right are non-negative and, therefore, both must be separately 0. Just considering the first term leads to the conclusion that $u=0$ for all $x in U$ and $0 le t' le T$ because $u$ is continuous. Therefore $u_{1}=u_{2}$ as desired.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          HINT: Start by assume you have two solutions $u_{1}$ and $u_{2}$ for the given problem, and show that $u=u_{1}-u_{2}$ is identically 0, because $u$ satisfies $u_{t}=Delta u$, with $u$ having 0 boundary data. The trick to showing $u$ is the zero function is to integrate $u_{t}-Delta u$ against $u$, for example, and use something like $ u Delta u = nablacdot (unabla u)-nabla ucdotnabla u$. Then follow your nose using Calculus identities and use the fact that you have 0 boundary data.



          So suppose $u_{1}$ and $u_{2}$ are solutions of the problem. Then $u=u_{1}-u_{2}$ satisfies
          $$
          u_{t}-Delta u = 0,;;; frac{partial u}{partialnu}=0 mbox{ on } partial U times [0,T], ;;; u = 0 mbox{ on } U times { t= 0}.
          $$
          Therefore,
          $$
          0=int_{U}uu_{t}-uDelta u,dx = int_{U}uu_{t}-nablacdot(unabla u)+|nabla u|^{2},dx
          $$
          $$ = int_{U}uu_{t}+|nabla u|^{2},dx-int_{partial U}ufrac{partial u}{partialnu},dS(x),
          $$
          where $dS$ is the surface area element on $partial U$. (This is Gauss' Divergence Theorem.) Because $frac{partial u}{partial nu}=0$ on $partial U$ and $2uu_{t}=(u^{2})_{t}$, the above becomes
          $$
          0 = int_{U}frac{1}{2}frac{partial}{partial t}u^{2}+|nabla u|^{2}dx
          $$
          Now integrate the above on $[0,t']$ for any $0 le t' le T$, and use the fact that $u(x,t)|_{t=0}=0$:
          $$
          0 = int_{U}frac{1}{2}|u(x,t')|^{2},dx +int_{0}^{t'}int_{U}|nabla u(x,t)|^{2}dxdt.
          $$
          Both terms on the right are non-negative and, therefore, both must be separately 0. Just considering the first term leads to the conclusion that $u=0$ for all $x in U$ and $0 le t' le T$ because $u$ is continuous. Therefore $u_{1}=u_{2}$ as desired.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Dec 8 '13 at 8:20

























          answered Dec 6 '13 at 16:02









          DisintegratingByPartsDisintegratingByParts

          59.8k42681




          59.8k42681












          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. However, I have a question. I know how to show $u=u_1-u_2 =0$ in $U_{T}$ and $U times {t=0}$. Can you give me some ideas on how to show u is zero on another boundary. Thank you@T.A.E.
            $endgroup$
            – Yang
            Dec 6 '13 at 16:18










          • $begingroup$
            Once you know that the integral of a continuous function is 0 over the open region, then you know that the function must be 0. For example, if you can show that the square of the length of the gradient is 0 over the open region, then the gradient must be 0 because it is assumed continuous. So you conclude that the function must be a constant because all of its first order derivatives are 0. You can use line integrals to conclude this. Etc.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 6 '13 at 19:51










          • $begingroup$
            I noticed that I wrote the integral of a continuous function when I meant integral of the square of a continuous function. Big difference, and the latter applies to your case.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 7 '13 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            Can I ask you how I can apply the energy method to do this proof? Thanks@T.A.E.
            $endgroup$
            – Yang
            Dec 8 '13 at 4:14










          • $begingroup$
            I added more detail for you.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 8 '13 at 7:01


















          • $begingroup$
            Thanks. However, I have a question. I know how to show $u=u_1-u_2 =0$ in $U_{T}$ and $U times {t=0}$. Can you give me some ideas on how to show u is zero on another boundary. Thank you@T.A.E.
            $endgroup$
            – Yang
            Dec 6 '13 at 16:18










          • $begingroup$
            Once you know that the integral of a continuous function is 0 over the open region, then you know that the function must be 0. For example, if you can show that the square of the length of the gradient is 0 over the open region, then the gradient must be 0 because it is assumed continuous. So you conclude that the function must be a constant because all of its first order derivatives are 0. You can use line integrals to conclude this. Etc.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 6 '13 at 19:51










          • $begingroup$
            I noticed that I wrote the integral of a continuous function when I meant integral of the square of a continuous function. Big difference, and the latter applies to your case.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 7 '13 at 22:24










          • $begingroup$
            Can I ask you how I can apply the energy method to do this proof? Thanks@T.A.E.
            $endgroup$
            – Yang
            Dec 8 '13 at 4:14










          • $begingroup$
            I added more detail for you.
            $endgroup$
            – DisintegratingByParts
            Dec 8 '13 at 7:01
















          $begingroup$
          Thanks. However, I have a question. I know how to show $u=u_1-u_2 =0$ in $U_{T}$ and $U times {t=0}$. Can you give me some ideas on how to show u is zero on another boundary. Thank you@T.A.E.
          $endgroup$
          – Yang
          Dec 6 '13 at 16:18




          $begingroup$
          Thanks. However, I have a question. I know how to show $u=u_1-u_2 =0$ in $U_{T}$ and $U times {t=0}$. Can you give me some ideas on how to show u is zero on another boundary. Thank you@T.A.E.
          $endgroup$
          – Yang
          Dec 6 '13 at 16:18












          $begingroup$
          Once you know that the integral of a continuous function is 0 over the open region, then you know that the function must be 0. For example, if you can show that the square of the length of the gradient is 0 over the open region, then the gradient must be 0 because it is assumed continuous. So you conclude that the function must be a constant because all of its first order derivatives are 0. You can use line integrals to conclude this. Etc.
          $endgroup$
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Dec 6 '13 at 19:51




          $begingroup$
          Once you know that the integral of a continuous function is 0 over the open region, then you know that the function must be 0. For example, if you can show that the square of the length of the gradient is 0 over the open region, then the gradient must be 0 because it is assumed continuous. So you conclude that the function must be a constant because all of its first order derivatives are 0. You can use line integrals to conclude this. Etc.
          $endgroup$
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Dec 6 '13 at 19:51












          $begingroup$
          I noticed that I wrote the integral of a continuous function when I meant integral of the square of a continuous function. Big difference, and the latter applies to your case.
          $endgroup$
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Dec 7 '13 at 22:24




          $begingroup$
          I noticed that I wrote the integral of a continuous function when I meant integral of the square of a continuous function. Big difference, and the latter applies to your case.
          $endgroup$
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Dec 7 '13 at 22:24












          $begingroup$
          Can I ask you how I can apply the energy method to do this proof? Thanks@T.A.E.
          $endgroup$
          – Yang
          Dec 8 '13 at 4:14




          $begingroup$
          Can I ask you how I can apply the energy method to do this proof? Thanks@T.A.E.
          $endgroup$
          – Yang
          Dec 8 '13 at 4:14












          $begingroup$
          I added more detail for you.
          $endgroup$
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Dec 8 '13 at 7:01




          $begingroup$
          I added more detail for you.
          $endgroup$
          – DisintegratingByParts
          Dec 8 '13 at 7:01


















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