How to prove this result about convexity?
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I am reading this result which I am not able to prove:
$$ frac{f'(x)}{f'(f^{-1}(f(x)+a))}-1 $$ is negative for all x and, and for all $ageq1$ if and only if $f$ is convex. $f'$ is the derivative of $f$ wrt $x$ and $f^{-1}$ is the inverse function. I am actually blanking and do not have an idea about how to prove this result. Can anyone help?
convex-analysis
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add a comment |
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I am reading this result which I am not able to prove:
$$ frac{f'(x)}{f'(f^{-1}(f(x)+a))}-1 $$ is negative for all x and, and for all $ageq1$ if and only if $f$ is convex. $f'$ is the derivative of $f$ wrt $x$ and $f^{-1}$ is the inverse function. I am actually blanking and do not have an idea about how to prove this result. Can anyone help?
convex-analysis
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Convex functions are not necessarily invertible, e.g. for $f(x) = x^2$ we do not have an inverse function.
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– gerw
Jan 31 at 14:34
add a comment |
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I am reading this result which I am not able to prove:
$$ frac{f'(x)}{f'(f^{-1}(f(x)+a))}-1 $$ is negative for all x and, and for all $ageq1$ if and only if $f$ is convex. $f'$ is the derivative of $f$ wrt $x$ and $f^{-1}$ is the inverse function. I am actually blanking and do not have an idea about how to prove this result. Can anyone help?
convex-analysis
$endgroup$
I am reading this result which I am not able to prove:
$$ frac{f'(x)}{f'(f^{-1}(f(x)+a))}-1 $$ is negative for all x and, and for all $ageq1$ if and only if $f$ is convex. $f'$ is the derivative of $f$ wrt $x$ and $f^{-1}$ is the inverse function. I am actually blanking and do not have an idea about how to prove this result. Can anyone help?
convex-analysis
convex-analysis
edited Jan 30 at 18:42
Api
asked Jan 30 at 18:36


ApiApi
12
12
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Convex functions are not necessarily invertible, e.g. for $f(x) = x^2$ we do not have an inverse function.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Jan 31 at 14:34
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Convex functions are not necessarily invertible, e.g. for $f(x) = x^2$ we do not have an inverse function.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Jan 31 at 14:34
$begingroup$
Convex functions are not necessarily invertible, e.g. for $f(x) = x^2$ we do not have an inverse function.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Jan 31 at 14:34
$begingroup$
Convex functions are not necessarily invertible, e.g. for $f(x) = x^2$ we do not have an inverse function.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Jan 31 at 14:34
add a comment |
1 Answer
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Try drawing a picture, say of $f(x) = x^2$. To make it invertible, you'll need to restrict your attention to either the right half ($x ge 0$) or the left half $(x le 0)$. The top and bottom of that fraction can be seen as slopes of two different tangent lines. Which is steeper?
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I think I get the intuition, since the function is convex then the tangent lines have a smaller coefficient as $x$ increases, therefore their ratio is always smaller than 1. Thank you very much for your help!
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– Api
Jan 30 at 19:38
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the 'only if' and the technicalities around $a geq 1$ are still nice challenges
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– LinAlg
Jan 30 at 19:40
add a comment |
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Try drawing a picture, say of $f(x) = x^2$. To make it invertible, you'll need to restrict your attention to either the right half ($x ge 0$) or the left half $(x le 0)$. The top and bottom of that fraction can be seen as slopes of two different tangent lines. Which is steeper?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I think I get the intuition, since the function is convex then the tangent lines have a smaller coefficient as $x$ increases, therefore their ratio is always smaller than 1. Thank you very much for your help!
$endgroup$
– Api
Jan 30 at 19:38
$begingroup$
the 'only if' and the technicalities around $a geq 1$ are still nice challenges
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Jan 30 at 19:40
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Try drawing a picture, say of $f(x) = x^2$. To make it invertible, you'll need to restrict your attention to either the right half ($x ge 0$) or the left half $(x le 0)$. The top and bottom of that fraction can be seen as slopes of two different tangent lines. Which is steeper?
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I think I get the intuition, since the function is convex then the tangent lines have a smaller coefficient as $x$ increases, therefore their ratio is always smaller than 1. Thank you very much for your help!
$endgroup$
– Api
Jan 30 at 19:38
$begingroup$
the 'only if' and the technicalities around $a geq 1$ are still nice challenges
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Jan 30 at 19:40
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Try drawing a picture, say of $f(x) = x^2$. To make it invertible, you'll need to restrict your attention to either the right half ($x ge 0$) or the left half $(x le 0)$. The top and bottom of that fraction can be seen as slopes of two different tangent lines. Which is steeper?
$endgroup$
Try drawing a picture, say of $f(x) = x^2$. To make it invertible, you'll need to restrict your attention to either the right half ($x ge 0$) or the left half $(x le 0)$. The top and bottom of that fraction can be seen as slopes of two different tangent lines. Which is steeper?
answered Jan 30 at 18:52
Nathaniel MayerNathaniel Mayer
1,863516
1,863516
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I think I get the intuition, since the function is convex then the tangent lines have a smaller coefficient as $x$ increases, therefore their ratio is always smaller than 1. Thank you very much for your help!
$endgroup$
– Api
Jan 30 at 19:38
$begingroup$
the 'only if' and the technicalities around $a geq 1$ are still nice challenges
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Jan 30 at 19:40
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I think I get the intuition, since the function is convex then the tangent lines have a smaller coefficient as $x$ increases, therefore their ratio is always smaller than 1. Thank you very much for your help!
$endgroup$
– Api
Jan 30 at 19:38
$begingroup$
the 'only if' and the technicalities around $a geq 1$ are still nice challenges
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Jan 30 at 19:40
$begingroup$
I think I get the intuition, since the function is convex then the tangent lines have a smaller coefficient as $x$ increases, therefore their ratio is always smaller than 1. Thank you very much for your help!
$endgroup$
– Api
Jan 30 at 19:38
$begingroup$
I think I get the intuition, since the function is convex then the tangent lines have a smaller coefficient as $x$ increases, therefore their ratio is always smaller than 1. Thank you very much for your help!
$endgroup$
– Api
Jan 30 at 19:38
$begingroup$
the 'only if' and the technicalities around $a geq 1$ are still nice challenges
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Jan 30 at 19:40
$begingroup$
the 'only if' and the technicalities around $a geq 1$ are still nice challenges
$endgroup$
– LinAlg
Jan 30 at 19:40
add a comment |
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Convex functions are not necessarily invertible, e.g. for $f(x) = x^2$ we do not have an inverse function.
$endgroup$
– gerw
Jan 31 at 14:34