Piecewise Functions and Supremums












0












$begingroup$


Let $f(x) = begin{cases}
x, &x < a\
x + 3, & x geq a
end{cases}$
$hspace{1cm}$ and $A = left { f(x): x < aright }$



Is $text{sup} A= f(a)$?



I suspect not because it is NOT the case that for any arbitrary positive number $f(a) - epsilon < f(x)$ for $x in A$. In other words, there exists epsilon such that $f(a) - epsilon geq f(x)$, thus contradicting that $text{sup} A= f(a)$.



But then what is sup $A$?










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    the supremum would just be $a$ itself. It's an upper bound, and the smallest one, but it just leaves a "hole" in the graph
    $endgroup$
    – rubikscube09
    Jan 30 at 17:49
















0












$begingroup$


Let $f(x) = begin{cases}
x, &x < a\
x + 3, & x geq a
end{cases}$
$hspace{1cm}$ and $A = left { f(x): x < aright }$



Is $text{sup} A= f(a)$?



I suspect not because it is NOT the case that for any arbitrary positive number $f(a) - epsilon < f(x)$ for $x in A$. In other words, there exists epsilon such that $f(a) - epsilon geq f(x)$, thus contradicting that $text{sup} A= f(a)$.



But then what is sup $A$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    the supremum would just be $a$ itself. It's an upper bound, and the smallest one, but it just leaves a "hole" in the graph
    $endgroup$
    – rubikscube09
    Jan 30 at 17:49














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $f(x) = begin{cases}
x, &x < a\
x + 3, & x geq a
end{cases}$
$hspace{1cm}$ and $A = left { f(x): x < aright }$



Is $text{sup} A= f(a)$?



I suspect not because it is NOT the case that for any arbitrary positive number $f(a) - epsilon < f(x)$ for $x in A$. In other words, there exists epsilon such that $f(a) - epsilon geq f(x)$, thus contradicting that $text{sup} A= f(a)$.



But then what is sup $A$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $f(x) = begin{cases}
x, &x < a\
x + 3, & x geq a
end{cases}$
$hspace{1cm}$ and $A = left { f(x): x < aright }$



Is $text{sup} A= f(a)$?



I suspect not because it is NOT the case that for any arbitrary positive number $f(a) - epsilon < f(x)$ for $x in A$. In other words, there exists epsilon such that $f(a) - epsilon geq f(x)$, thus contradicting that $text{sup} A= f(a)$.



But then what is sup $A$?







real-analysis






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asked Jan 30 at 17:46









user_hello1user_hello1

987




987








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    the supremum would just be $a$ itself. It's an upper bound, and the smallest one, but it just leaves a "hole" in the graph
    $endgroup$
    – rubikscube09
    Jan 30 at 17:49














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    the supremum would just be $a$ itself. It's an upper bound, and the smallest one, but it just leaves a "hole" in the graph
    $endgroup$
    – rubikscube09
    Jan 30 at 17:49








1




1




$begingroup$
the supremum would just be $a$ itself. It's an upper bound, and the smallest one, but it just leaves a "hole" in the graph
$endgroup$
– rubikscube09
Jan 30 at 17:49




$begingroup$
the supremum would just be $a$ itself. It's an upper bound, and the smallest one, but it just leaves a "hole" in the graph
$endgroup$
– rubikscube09
Jan 30 at 17:49










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$begingroup$

For $x < a$ , $f(x) = x$.
So basically $A = {f(x) : x <a } = { x : x <a }$, and the supremum of this set is a.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    1












    $begingroup$

    For $x < a$ , $f(x) = x$.
    So basically $A = {f(x) : x <a } = { x : x <a }$, and the supremum of this set is a.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      For $x < a$ , $f(x) = x$.
      So basically $A = {f(x) : x <a } = { x : x <a }$, and the supremum of this set is a.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        For $x < a$ , $f(x) = x$.
        So basically $A = {f(x) : x <a } = { x : x <a }$, and the supremum of this set is a.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        For $x < a$ , $f(x) = x$.
        So basically $A = {f(x) : x <a } = { x : x <a }$, and the supremum of this set is a.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 30 at 20:35









        Daphna KeidarDaphna Keidar

        34417




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