Probability of Tom being late to work
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So I have this problem here.
The probability that Tom is late for work on a rainy day is 0.4 and the probability that he is late for work on a non-rainy day is 0.1.
Can I state that P(Tom being late for work)=P(Late|Rain)+P(Late|No rain)=0.4+0.1=0.5 ?
probability probability-theory conditional-probability
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add a comment |
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So I have this problem here.
The probability that Tom is late for work on a rainy day is 0.4 and the probability that he is late for work on a non-rainy day is 0.1.
Can I state that P(Tom being late for work)=P(Late|Rain)+P(Late|No rain)=0.4+0.1=0.5 ?
probability probability-theory conditional-probability
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No, we need to know the respective probability of raining and not raining to calculate this
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– Peter Foreman
Jan 30 at 18:24
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It can't be. Say the chance he is late on a rainy day is $0.9$ and the chance he is late on a non-rainy day is also $0.9$. Would the chance he is late be $1.8?$
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– Ross Millikan
Jan 30 at 18:28
add a comment |
$begingroup$
So I have this problem here.
The probability that Tom is late for work on a rainy day is 0.4 and the probability that he is late for work on a non-rainy day is 0.1.
Can I state that P(Tom being late for work)=P(Late|Rain)+P(Late|No rain)=0.4+0.1=0.5 ?
probability probability-theory conditional-probability
$endgroup$
So I have this problem here.
The probability that Tom is late for work on a rainy day is 0.4 and the probability that he is late for work on a non-rainy day is 0.1.
Can I state that P(Tom being late for work)=P(Late|Rain)+P(Late|No rain)=0.4+0.1=0.5 ?
probability probability-theory conditional-probability
probability probability-theory conditional-probability
asked Jan 30 at 18:20
The Poor JewThe Poor Jew
657
657
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No, we need to know the respective probability of raining and not raining to calculate this
$endgroup$
– Peter Foreman
Jan 30 at 18:24
$begingroup$
It can't be. Say the chance he is late on a rainy day is $0.9$ and the chance he is late on a non-rainy day is also $0.9$. Would the chance he is late be $1.8?$
$endgroup$
– Ross Millikan
Jan 30 at 18:28
add a comment |
$begingroup$
No, we need to know the respective probability of raining and not raining to calculate this
$endgroup$
– Peter Foreman
Jan 30 at 18:24
$begingroup$
It can't be. Say the chance he is late on a rainy day is $0.9$ and the chance he is late on a non-rainy day is also $0.9$. Would the chance he is late be $1.8?$
$endgroup$
– Ross Millikan
Jan 30 at 18:28
$begingroup$
No, we need to know the respective probability of raining and not raining to calculate this
$endgroup$
– Peter Foreman
Jan 30 at 18:24
$begingroup$
No, we need to know the respective probability of raining and not raining to calculate this
$endgroup$
– Peter Foreman
Jan 30 at 18:24
$begingroup$
It can't be. Say the chance he is late on a rainy day is $0.9$ and the chance he is late on a non-rainy day is also $0.9$. Would the chance he is late be $1.8?$
$endgroup$
– Ross Millikan
Jan 30 at 18:28
$begingroup$
It can't be. Say the chance he is late on a rainy day is $0.9$ and the chance he is late on a non-rainy day is also $0.9$. Would the chance he is late be $1.8?$
$endgroup$
– Ross Millikan
Jan 30 at 18:28
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Assuming that "the probability that tom is late for work on a rainy day" is in reference to $Pr(text{Late}mid text{Rain})$ then no. You need to know the probability of it being a rainy day. The correct statement would be:
$Pr(text{Late}) = Pr(text{Rain})Pr(text{Late}|text{Rain}) + Pr(text{No rain})Pr(text{Late}|text{No rain})$
This is the law of total probability.
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
another person has already answered this correctly, but I just wanted to help you think through this. Imagine that everyday is rainy: there would be a 40 percent chance that he is late on a daily basis. Now imagine that it is never rainy: there is a 10 percent chance that he is late. So, having a %50 percent chance of being late is impossible, the answer must be between these two values (0.1-0.4).
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add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
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active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Assuming that "the probability that tom is late for work on a rainy day" is in reference to $Pr(text{Late}mid text{Rain})$ then no. You need to know the probability of it being a rainy day. The correct statement would be:
$Pr(text{Late}) = Pr(text{Rain})Pr(text{Late}|text{Rain}) + Pr(text{No rain})Pr(text{Late}|text{No rain})$
This is the law of total probability.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Assuming that "the probability that tom is late for work on a rainy day" is in reference to $Pr(text{Late}mid text{Rain})$ then no. You need to know the probability of it being a rainy day. The correct statement would be:
$Pr(text{Late}) = Pr(text{Rain})Pr(text{Late}|text{Rain}) + Pr(text{No rain})Pr(text{Late}|text{No rain})$
This is the law of total probability.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Assuming that "the probability that tom is late for work on a rainy day" is in reference to $Pr(text{Late}mid text{Rain})$ then no. You need to know the probability of it being a rainy day. The correct statement would be:
$Pr(text{Late}) = Pr(text{Rain})Pr(text{Late}|text{Rain}) + Pr(text{No rain})Pr(text{Late}|text{No rain})$
This is the law of total probability.
$endgroup$
Assuming that "the probability that tom is late for work on a rainy day" is in reference to $Pr(text{Late}mid text{Rain})$ then no. You need to know the probability of it being a rainy day. The correct statement would be:
$Pr(text{Late}) = Pr(text{Rain})Pr(text{Late}|text{Rain}) + Pr(text{No rain})Pr(text{Late}|text{No rain})$
This is the law of total probability.
answered Jan 30 at 18:24


JMoravitzJMoravitz
48.7k43988
48.7k43988
add a comment |
add a comment |
$begingroup$
another person has already answered this correctly, but I just wanted to help you think through this. Imagine that everyday is rainy: there would be a 40 percent chance that he is late on a daily basis. Now imagine that it is never rainy: there is a 10 percent chance that he is late. So, having a %50 percent chance of being late is impossible, the answer must be between these two values (0.1-0.4).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
another person has already answered this correctly, but I just wanted to help you think through this. Imagine that everyday is rainy: there would be a 40 percent chance that he is late on a daily basis. Now imagine that it is never rainy: there is a 10 percent chance that he is late. So, having a %50 percent chance of being late is impossible, the answer must be between these two values (0.1-0.4).
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
another person has already answered this correctly, but I just wanted to help you think through this. Imagine that everyday is rainy: there would be a 40 percent chance that he is late on a daily basis. Now imagine that it is never rainy: there is a 10 percent chance that he is late. So, having a %50 percent chance of being late is impossible, the answer must be between these two values (0.1-0.4).
$endgroup$
another person has already answered this correctly, but I just wanted to help you think through this. Imagine that everyday is rainy: there would be a 40 percent chance that he is late on a daily basis. Now imagine that it is never rainy: there is a 10 percent chance that he is late. So, having a %50 percent chance of being late is impossible, the answer must be between these two values (0.1-0.4).
answered Jan 30 at 18:30
user639944user639944
111
111
add a comment |
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
No, we need to know the respective probability of raining and not raining to calculate this
$endgroup$
– Peter Foreman
Jan 30 at 18:24
$begingroup$
It can't be. Say the chance he is late on a rainy day is $0.9$ and the chance he is late on a non-rainy day is also $0.9$. Would the chance he is late be $1.8?$
$endgroup$
– Ross Millikan
Jan 30 at 18:28