Understanding the group product of $mathbb{Z_n}$ and $mathbb{Z_m}$, $G=mathbb{Z_m} mathbb{Z_n}$
$begingroup$
$G=mathbb{Z_m} mathbb{Z_n} = {[a][b] : [a] in mathbb{Z_m}, [b] in mathbb{Z_n}}$
Specifically when $gcd(m,n)=1$. Can somebody show me what $G$ will equal as a set, and if you could go to far as to open up the equivalence classes of $[a],[b]$ and show me what exactly is going on, I'd appreciate it. I know that when $gcd(m,n)=1$ this product will be isomorphic to $mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ and am just looking for a bit of details to clarify. Thanks!
group-theory number-theory finite-groups cyclic-groups
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$G=mathbb{Z_m} mathbb{Z_n} = {[a][b] : [a] in mathbb{Z_m}, [b] in mathbb{Z_n}}$
Specifically when $gcd(m,n)=1$. Can somebody show me what $G$ will equal as a set, and if you could go to far as to open up the equivalence classes of $[a],[b]$ and show me what exactly is going on, I'd appreciate it. I know that when $gcd(m,n)=1$ this product will be isomorphic to $mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ and am just looking for a bit of details to clarify. Thanks!
group-theory number-theory finite-groups cyclic-groups
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Do you mean the direct product $G=mathbb{Z}_m times mathbb{Z}_n$ ?
$endgroup$
– lhf
Feb 1 at 18:08
$begingroup$
No, I don't actually. Like, if you have two subgroups of $G$, say $H,K$, then you can describe $HK$ as a set, and this set is a subgroup of $G$ if either $K$ or $H$ is normal in $G$. I'm looking for someone to explain to me why $mathbb{Z_n} mathbb{Z_m} = mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ when $gcd(m,n)=1$, and specifically I would like to "open up the equivalence classes" and see why this makes sense in a number theoretic sort of way
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 1 at 18:17
1
$begingroup$
So $mathbb Z_n$, $mathbb Z_m$ are subgroups of which group?
$endgroup$
– eduard
Feb 1 at 18:24
$begingroup$
Ah, right, sorry. They are isomorphic to subgroups of $mathbb{Z_n} times mathbb{Z_m}$
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 1 at 18:33
$begingroup$
Can you explain your attempt? Do you feel comfortable with Isomorphism theorems?
$endgroup$
– eduard
Feb 1 at 18:58
add a comment |
$begingroup$
$G=mathbb{Z_m} mathbb{Z_n} = {[a][b] : [a] in mathbb{Z_m}, [b] in mathbb{Z_n}}$
Specifically when $gcd(m,n)=1$. Can somebody show me what $G$ will equal as a set, and if you could go to far as to open up the equivalence classes of $[a],[b]$ and show me what exactly is going on, I'd appreciate it. I know that when $gcd(m,n)=1$ this product will be isomorphic to $mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ and am just looking for a bit of details to clarify. Thanks!
group-theory number-theory finite-groups cyclic-groups
$endgroup$
$G=mathbb{Z_m} mathbb{Z_n} = {[a][b] : [a] in mathbb{Z_m}, [b] in mathbb{Z_n}}$
Specifically when $gcd(m,n)=1$. Can somebody show me what $G$ will equal as a set, and if you could go to far as to open up the equivalence classes of $[a],[b]$ and show me what exactly is going on, I'd appreciate it. I know that when $gcd(m,n)=1$ this product will be isomorphic to $mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ and am just looking for a bit of details to clarify. Thanks!
group-theory number-theory finite-groups cyclic-groups
group-theory number-theory finite-groups cyclic-groups
edited Feb 2 at 17:44
Shaun
10.5k113687
10.5k113687
asked Feb 1 at 18:04


Mathematical MushroomMathematical Mushroom
1178
1178
1
$begingroup$
Do you mean the direct product $G=mathbb{Z}_m times mathbb{Z}_n$ ?
$endgroup$
– lhf
Feb 1 at 18:08
$begingroup$
No, I don't actually. Like, if you have two subgroups of $G$, say $H,K$, then you can describe $HK$ as a set, and this set is a subgroup of $G$ if either $K$ or $H$ is normal in $G$. I'm looking for someone to explain to me why $mathbb{Z_n} mathbb{Z_m} = mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ when $gcd(m,n)=1$, and specifically I would like to "open up the equivalence classes" and see why this makes sense in a number theoretic sort of way
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 1 at 18:17
1
$begingroup$
So $mathbb Z_n$, $mathbb Z_m$ are subgroups of which group?
$endgroup$
– eduard
Feb 1 at 18:24
$begingroup$
Ah, right, sorry. They are isomorphic to subgroups of $mathbb{Z_n} times mathbb{Z_m}$
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 1 at 18:33
$begingroup$
Can you explain your attempt? Do you feel comfortable with Isomorphism theorems?
$endgroup$
– eduard
Feb 1 at 18:58
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Do you mean the direct product $G=mathbb{Z}_m times mathbb{Z}_n$ ?
$endgroup$
– lhf
Feb 1 at 18:08
$begingroup$
No, I don't actually. Like, if you have two subgroups of $G$, say $H,K$, then you can describe $HK$ as a set, and this set is a subgroup of $G$ if either $K$ or $H$ is normal in $G$. I'm looking for someone to explain to me why $mathbb{Z_n} mathbb{Z_m} = mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ when $gcd(m,n)=1$, and specifically I would like to "open up the equivalence classes" and see why this makes sense in a number theoretic sort of way
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 1 at 18:17
1
$begingroup$
So $mathbb Z_n$, $mathbb Z_m$ are subgroups of which group?
$endgroup$
– eduard
Feb 1 at 18:24
$begingroup$
Ah, right, sorry. They are isomorphic to subgroups of $mathbb{Z_n} times mathbb{Z_m}$
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 1 at 18:33
$begingroup$
Can you explain your attempt? Do you feel comfortable with Isomorphism theorems?
$endgroup$
– eduard
Feb 1 at 18:58
1
1
$begingroup$
Do you mean the direct product $G=mathbb{Z}_m times mathbb{Z}_n$ ?
$endgroup$
– lhf
Feb 1 at 18:08
$begingroup$
Do you mean the direct product $G=mathbb{Z}_m times mathbb{Z}_n$ ?
$endgroup$
– lhf
Feb 1 at 18:08
$begingroup$
No, I don't actually. Like, if you have two subgroups of $G$, say $H,K$, then you can describe $HK$ as a set, and this set is a subgroup of $G$ if either $K$ or $H$ is normal in $G$. I'm looking for someone to explain to me why $mathbb{Z_n} mathbb{Z_m} = mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ when $gcd(m,n)=1$, and specifically I would like to "open up the equivalence classes" and see why this makes sense in a number theoretic sort of way
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 1 at 18:17
$begingroup$
No, I don't actually. Like, if you have two subgroups of $G$, say $H,K$, then you can describe $HK$ as a set, and this set is a subgroup of $G$ if either $K$ or $H$ is normal in $G$. I'm looking for someone to explain to me why $mathbb{Z_n} mathbb{Z_m} = mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ when $gcd(m,n)=1$, and specifically I would like to "open up the equivalence classes" and see why this makes sense in a number theoretic sort of way
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 1 at 18:17
1
1
$begingroup$
So $mathbb Z_n$, $mathbb Z_m$ are subgroups of which group?
$endgroup$
– eduard
Feb 1 at 18:24
$begingroup$
So $mathbb Z_n$, $mathbb Z_m$ are subgroups of which group?
$endgroup$
– eduard
Feb 1 at 18:24
$begingroup$
Ah, right, sorry. They are isomorphic to subgroups of $mathbb{Z_n} times mathbb{Z_m}$
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 1 at 18:33
$begingroup$
Ah, right, sorry. They are isomorphic to subgroups of $mathbb{Z_n} times mathbb{Z_m}$
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 1 at 18:33
$begingroup$
Can you explain your attempt? Do you feel comfortable with Isomorphism theorems?
$endgroup$
– eduard
Feb 1 at 18:58
$begingroup$
Can you explain your attempt? Do you feel comfortable with Isomorphism theorems?
$endgroup$
– eduard
Feb 1 at 18:58
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Algebraically it would most likely be easier to start with a group $H = mathbb{Z}_n times mathbb{Z}_m$ with $gcd(m,n) = 1$. Then it's very straightforward to see that $mathbb{Z}_n mathbb{Z}_m cong H$ (and many proofs of the Chinese Remainder Theorem include this line of reasoning; recall the Chinese Remainder Theorem says essentially that $mathbb{Z}_n times mathbb{Z}_m cong mathbb{Z}_{nm}$ exactly when $gcd(m,n) = 1$).
But you seem to want a more hand-on understanding. So let's produce an example, say with $6 = 2 cdot 3$. And we'll begin by starting with the group $H = mathbb{Z}_6$, which I'll recognize as $(mathbb{Z}/7mathbb{Z})^times$, the multiplicative units mod $7$.
(As a small note: writing $[n]$ for equivalence classes all the time is annoying. But essentially integer that appears below that is a member of a group is an equivalence class in that group).
Let $A = langle 2 rangle = { 2, 4, 1 } cong mathbb{Z}_3$ be the subgroup generated by $2$ and let $B = langle 6 rangle = {6, 1 } cong mathbb{Z}_2$ be the subgroup generated by $6$.
Then your question asks what $AB$ looks like as a subset of $H$. Of course, we know that $AB = H$, so really I suppose we're asking if we can gain an understanding of how $AB = H$.
So let's do it. The product $AB$ consists of the following $6$ elements (coming from $3$ choices from $A$ and $2$ choices from $B$):
$$begin{array}{lllll}
2 cdot 6 = 5 && 4 cdot 6 = 3 && 1 cdot 6 = 6 \
2 cdot 1 = 2 && 4 cdot 1 = 4 && 1 cdot 1 = 1
end{array}$$
Notice that each element $1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6$ is represented, and thus (as sets) it's clear that $AB = H$. From this it's immediately clear that this is true as groups as well, knowing that a subgroup of $H$ with the same (finite) size as $H$ must be $H$.
Further, note that each element is represented in a unique way! This is also part of the statement of the Chinese Remainder Theorem.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks. I wanted to see that $mathbb{Z_n} mathbb{Z_m}=mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ when $gcd(m,n)=1$ in order to conclude that $mathbb{Z_n} times mathbb{Z_m}=mathbb{Z_{mn}}$
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 4 at 1:29
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Algebraically it would most likely be easier to start with a group $H = mathbb{Z}_n times mathbb{Z}_m$ with $gcd(m,n) = 1$. Then it's very straightforward to see that $mathbb{Z}_n mathbb{Z}_m cong H$ (and many proofs of the Chinese Remainder Theorem include this line of reasoning; recall the Chinese Remainder Theorem says essentially that $mathbb{Z}_n times mathbb{Z}_m cong mathbb{Z}_{nm}$ exactly when $gcd(m,n) = 1$).
But you seem to want a more hand-on understanding. So let's produce an example, say with $6 = 2 cdot 3$. And we'll begin by starting with the group $H = mathbb{Z}_6$, which I'll recognize as $(mathbb{Z}/7mathbb{Z})^times$, the multiplicative units mod $7$.
(As a small note: writing $[n]$ for equivalence classes all the time is annoying. But essentially integer that appears below that is a member of a group is an equivalence class in that group).
Let $A = langle 2 rangle = { 2, 4, 1 } cong mathbb{Z}_3$ be the subgroup generated by $2$ and let $B = langle 6 rangle = {6, 1 } cong mathbb{Z}_2$ be the subgroup generated by $6$.
Then your question asks what $AB$ looks like as a subset of $H$. Of course, we know that $AB = H$, so really I suppose we're asking if we can gain an understanding of how $AB = H$.
So let's do it. The product $AB$ consists of the following $6$ elements (coming from $3$ choices from $A$ and $2$ choices from $B$):
$$begin{array}{lllll}
2 cdot 6 = 5 && 4 cdot 6 = 3 && 1 cdot 6 = 6 \
2 cdot 1 = 2 && 4 cdot 1 = 4 && 1 cdot 1 = 1
end{array}$$
Notice that each element $1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6$ is represented, and thus (as sets) it's clear that $AB = H$. From this it's immediately clear that this is true as groups as well, knowing that a subgroup of $H$ with the same (finite) size as $H$ must be $H$.
Further, note that each element is represented in a unique way! This is also part of the statement of the Chinese Remainder Theorem.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks. I wanted to see that $mathbb{Z_n} mathbb{Z_m}=mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ when $gcd(m,n)=1$ in order to conclude that $mathbb{Z_n} times mathbb{Z_m}=mathbb{Z_{mn}}$
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 4 at 1:29
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Algebraically it would most likely be easier to start with a group $H = mathbb{Z}_n times mathbb{Z}_m$ with $gcd(m,n) = 1$. Then it's very straightforward to see that $mathbb{Z}_n mathbb{Z}_m cong H$ (and many proofs of the Chinese Remainder Theorem include this line of reasoning; recall the Chinese Remainder Theorem says essentially that $mathbb{Z}_n times mathbb{Z}_m cong mathbb{Z}_{nm}$ exactly when $gcd(m,n) = 1$).
But you seem to want a more hand-on understanding. So let's produce an example, say with $6 = 2 cdot 3$. And we'll begin by starting with the group $H = mathbb{Z}_6$, which I'll recognize as $(mathbb{Z}/7mathbb{Z})^times$, the multiplicative units mod $7$.
(As a small note: writing $[n]$ for equivalence classes all the time is annoying. But essentially integer that appears below that is a member of a group is an equivalence class in that group).
Let $A = langle 2 rangle = { 2, 4, 1 } cong mathbb{Z}_3$ be the subgroup generated by $2$ and let $B = langle 6 rangle = {6, 1 } cong mathbb{Z}_2$ be the subgroup generated by $6$.
Then your question asks what $AB$ looks like as a subset of $H$. Of course, we know that $AB = H$, so really I suppose we're asking if we can gain an understanding of how $AB = H$.
So let's do it. The product $AB$ consists of the following $6$ elements (coming from $3$ choices from $A$ and $2$ choices from $B$):
$$begin{array}{lllll}
2 cdot 6 = 5 && 4 cdot 6 = 3 && 1 cdot 6 = 6 \
2 cdot 1 = 2 && 4 cdot 1 = 4 && 1 cdot 1 = 1
end{array}$$
Notice that each element $1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6$ is represented, and thus (as sets) it's clear that $AB = H$. From this it's immediately clear that this is true as groups as well, knowing that a subgroup of $H$ with the same (finite) size as $H$ must be $H$.
Further, note that each element is represented in a unique way! This is also part of the statement of the Chinese Remainder Theorem.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Thanks. I wanted to see that $mathbb{Z_n} mathbb{Z_m}=mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ when $gcd(m,n)=1$ in order to conclude that $mathbb{Z_n} times mathbb{Z_m}=mathbb{Z_{mn}}$
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 4 at 1:29
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Algebraically it would most likely be easier to start with a group $H = mathbb{Z}_n times mathbb{Z}_m$ with $gcd(m,n) = 1$. Then it's very straightforward to see that $mathbb{Z}_n mathbb{Z}_m cong H$ (and many proofs of the Chinese Remainder Theorem include this line of reasoning; recall the Chinese Remainder Theorem says essentially that $mathbb{Z}_n times mathbb{Z}_m cong mathbb{Z}_{nm}$ exactly when $gcd(m,n) = 1$).
But you seem to want a more hand-on understanding. So let's produce an example, say with $6 = 2 cdot 3$. And we'll begin by starting with the group $H = mathbb{Z}_6$, which I'll recognize as $(mathbb{Z}/7mathbb{Z})^times$, the multiplicative units mod $7$.
(As a small note: writing $[n]$ for equivalence classes all the time is annoying. But essentially integer that appears below that is a member of a group is an equivalence class in that group).
Let $A = langle 2 rangle = { 2, 4, 1 } cong mathbb{Z}_3$ be the subgroup generated by $2$ and let $B = langle 6 rangle = {6, 1 } cong mathbb{Z}_2$ be the subgroup generated by $6$.
Then your question asks what $AB$ looks like as a subset of $H$. Of course, we know that $AB = H$, so really I suppose we're asking if we can gain an understanding of how $AB = H$.
So let's do it. The product $AB$ consists of the following $6$ elements (coming from $3$ choices from $A$ and $2$ choices from $B$):
$$begin{array}{lllll}
2 cdot 6 = 5 && 4 cdot 6 = 3 && 1 cdot 6 = 6 \
2 cdot 1 = 2 && 4 cdot 1 = 4 && 1 cdot 1 = 1
end{array}$$
Notice that each element $1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6$ is represented, and thus (as sets) it's clear that $AB = H$. From this it's immediately clear that this is true as groups as well, knowing that a subgroup of $H$ with the same (finite) size as $H$ must be $H$.
Further, note that each element is represented in a unique way! This is also part of the statement of the Chinese Remainder Theorem.
$endgroup$
Algebraically it would most likely be easier to start with a group $H = mathbb{Z}_n times mathbb{Z}_m$ with $gcd(m,n) = 1$. Then it's very straightforward to see that $mathbb{Z}_n mathbb{Z}_m cong H$ (and many proofs of the Chinese Remainder Theorem include this line of reasoning; recall the Chinese Remainder Theorem says essentially that $mathbb{Z}_n times mathbb{Z}_m cong mathbb{Z}_{nm}$ exactly when $gcd(m,n) = 1$).
But you seem to want a more hand-on understanding. So let's produce an example, say with $6 = 2 cdot 3$. And we'll begin by starting with the group $H = mathbb{Z}_6$, which I'll recognize as $(mathbb{Z}/7mathbb{Z})^times$, the multiplicative units mod $7$.
(As a small note: writing $[n]$ for equivalence classes all the time is annoying. But essentially integer that appears below that is a member of a group is an equivalence class in that group).
Let $A = langle 2 rangle = { 2, 4, 1 } cong mathbb{Z}_3$ be the subgroup generated by $2$ and let $B = langle 6 rangle = {6, 1 } cong mathbb{Z}_2$ be the subgroup generated by $6$.
Then your question asks what $AB$ looks like as a subset of $H$. Of course, we know that $AB = H$, so really I suppose we're asking if we can gain an understanding of how $AB = H$.
So let's do it. The product $AB$ consists of the following $6$ elements (coming from $3$ choices from $A$ and $2$ choices from $B$):
$$begin{array}{lllll}
2 cdot 6 = 5 && 4 cdot 6 = 3 && 1 cdot 6 = 6 \
2 cdot 1 = 2 && 4 cdot 1 = 4 && 1 cdot 1 = 1
end{array}$$
Notice that each element $1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6$ is represented, and thus (as sets) it's clear that $AB = H$. From this it's immediately clear that this is true as groups as well, knowing that a subgroup of $H$ with the same (finite) size as $H$ must be $H$.
Further, note that each element is represented in a unique way! This is also part of the statement of the Chinese Remainder Theorem.
answered Feb 3 at 15:25
davidlowryduda♦davidlowryduda
75.2k7121256
75.2k7121256
$begingroup$
Thanks. I wanted to see that $mathbb{Z_n} mathbb{Z_m}=mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ when $gcd(m,n)=1$ in order to conclude that $mathbb{Z_n} times mathbb{Z_m}=mathbb{Z_{mn}}$
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 4 at 1:29
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Thanks. I wanted to see that $mathbb{Z_n} mathbb{Z_m}=mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ when $gcd(m,n)=1$ in order to conclude that $mathbb{Z_n} times mathbb{Z_m}=mathbb{Z_{mn}}$
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 4 at 1:29
$begingroup$
Thanks. I wanted to see that $mathbb{Z_n} mathbb{Z_m}=mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ when $gcd(m,n)=1$ in order to conclude that $mathbb{Z_n} times mathbb{Z_m}=mathbb{Z_{mn}}$
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 4 at 1:29
$begingroup$
Thanks. I wanted to see that $mathbb{Z_n} mathbb{Z_m}=mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ when $gcd(m,n)=1$ in order to conclude that $mathbb{Z_n} times mathbb{Z_m}=mathbb{Z_{mn}}$
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 4 at 1:29
add a comment |
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1
$begingroup$
Do you mean the direct product $G=mathbb{Z}_m times mathbb{Z}_n$ ?
$endgroup$
– lhf
Feb 1 at 18:08
$begingroup$
No, I don't actually. Like, if you have two subgroups of $G$, say $H,K$, then you can describe $HK$ as a set, and this set is a subgroup of $G$ if either $K$ or $H$ is normal in $G$. I'm looking for someone to explain to me why $mathbb{Z_n} mathbb{Z_m} = mathbb{Z_{mn}}$ when $gcd(m,n)=1$, and specifically I would like to "open up the equivalence classes" and see why this makes sense in a number theoretic sort of way
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 1 at 18:17
1
$begingroup$
So $mathbb Z_n$, $mathbb Z_m$ are subgroups of which group?
$endgroup$
– eduard
Feb 1 at 18:24
$begingroup$
Ah, right, sorry. They are isomorphic to subgroups of $mathbb{Z_n} times mathbb{Z_m}$
$endgroup$
– Mathematical Mushroom
Feb 1 at 18:33
$begingroup$
Can you explain your attempt? Do you feel comfortable with Isomorphism theorems?
$endgroup$
– eduard
Feb 1 at 18:58