What is the difference between these statements? $forall x: P(x) wedge forall y:Q(y)$ and $forall x forall...












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What is the difference between these statements?



$$forall x: P(x) wedge forall y:Q(y)$$
$$forall x forall y:P(x) wedge Q(y)$$










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  • 2




    $begingroup$
    No difference...
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Jan 30 at 19:42






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The first statement has 2 colons.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    Jan 30 at 20:59
















0












$begingroup$


What is the difference between these statements?



$$forall x: P(x) wedge forall y:Q(y)$$
$$forall x forall y:P(x) wedge Q(y)$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    No difference...
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Jan 30 at 19:42






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The first statement has 2 colons.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    Jan 30 at 20:59














0












0








0





$begingroup$


What is the difference between these statements?



$$forall x: P(x) wedge forall y:Q(y)$$
$$forall x forall y:P(x) wedge Q(y)$$










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




What is the difference between these statements?



$$forall x: P(x) wedge forall y:Q(y)$$
$$forall x forall y:P(x) wedge Q(y)$$







logic






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 30 at 20:23









Blue

49.4k870157




49.4k870157










asked Jan 30 at 19:40









Ayoub RossiAyoub Rossi

11110




11110








  • 2




    $begingroup$
    No difference...
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Jan 30 at 19:42






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The first statement has 2 colons.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    Jan 30 at 20:59














  • 2




    $begingroup$
    No difference...
    $endgroup$
    – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
    Jan 30 at 19:42






  • 2




    $begingroup$
    The first statement has 2 colons.
    $endgroup$
    – DanielV
    Jan 30 at 20:59








2




2




$begingroup$
No difference...
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Jan 30 at 19:42




$begingroup$
No difference...
$endgroup$
– Mauro ALLEGRANZA
Jan 30 at 19:42




2




2




$begingroup$
The first statement has 2 colons.
$endgroup$
– DanielV
Jan 30 at 20:59




$begingroup$
The first statement has 2 colons.
$endgroup$
– DanielV
Jan 30 at 20:59










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

They are the same. The first statement asserts that $P(x)$ is true for all $x$ and that $Q(y)$ is true for all $y$.



The second statement asserts that $P(x) wedge Q(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$, but this thus implies that $P(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$ and $Q(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$, which is the same thing.






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
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    0












    $begingroup$

    They are the same. The first statement asserts that $P(x)$ is true for all $x$ and that $Q(y)$ is true for all $y$.



    The second statement asserts that $P(x) wedge Q(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$, but this thus implies that $P(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$ and $Q(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$, which is the same thing.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      They are the same. The first statement asserts that $P(x)$ is true for all $x$ and that $Q(y)$ is true for all $y$.



      The second statement asserts that $P(x) wedge Q(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$, but this thus implies that $P(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$ and $Q(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$, which is the same thing.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        They are the same. The first statement asserts that $P(x)$ is true for all $x$ and that $Q(y)$ is true for all $y$.



        The second statement asserts that $P(x) wedge Q(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$, but this thus implies that $P(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$ and $Q(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$, which is the same thing.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        They are the same. The first statement asserts that $P(x)$ is true for all $x$ and that $Q(y)$ is true for all $y$.



        The second statement asserts that $P(x) wedge Q(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$, but this thus implies that $P(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$ and $Q(x)$ is true for all $x$ and $y$, which is the same thing.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 30 at 19:53









        Trevor KafkaTrevor Kafka

        5309




        5309






























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