How to solve integrals like $int frac{e^{pm i 2pi t/T}}{a^{2}+t^{2}} dt$












3












$begingroup$


How can one solve integrals of the form



$$int frac{e^{pm i 2pi t/T}}{a^{2}+t^{2}} dt, $$



in general (indefinite) and in the definite cases with integration domains over the period ($T$) or infinity,



$$int_{-T/2}^{T/2}cdots text{or} int_{-infty}^{infty}cdots, $$



where $i=sqrt{-1}$ and $aneq0$ ?



Note: please note that I am looking for direct methods, not methods that rely on Fourier analysis and the Fourier duality property.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    From what I recall from one of my classes last semester, I recall seeing Fourier transforms used to solve integrals like this, perhaps combined with the properties of the transform under convolution. This is just a shot in the dark, though, but it might be worth a shot. (EDIT: Well, with that edit forbidding Fourier stuff, I've got nothing.)
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Jan 6 at 3:16












  • $begingroup$
    @Eevee I just added the note on Fourier analysis (you were quicker than my edit!). I am looking for more direct methods :) This would be more helpful to solve cases with different integration limits than infinity, and also to see an alternative way of reaching it.
    $endgroup$
    – user135626
    Jan 6 at 3:17












  • $begingroup$
    Are those limits meant to be $int_{-T/2}^{T/2}$ and $int_{-infty}^infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – John Doe
    Jan 6 at 3:25












  • $begingroup$
    This looks like something that can be solved through the use of contour integrals.
    $endgroup$
    – Aldon
    Jan 6 at 3:26










  • $begingroup$
    @JohnDoe Yes, corrected it, thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – user135626
    Jan 6 at 4:28
















3












$begingroup$


How can one solve integrals of the form



$$int frac{e^{pm i 2pi t/T}}{a^{2}+t^{2}} dt, $$



in general (indefinite) and in the definite cases with integration domains over the period ($T$) or infinity,



$$int_{-T/2}^{T/2}cdots text{or} int_{-infty}^{infty}cdots, $$



where $i=sqrt{-1}$ and $aneq0$ ?



Note: please note that I am looking for direct methods, not methods that rely on Fourier analysis and the Fourier duality property.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    From what I recall from one of my classes last semester, I recall seeing Fourier transforms used to solve integrals like this, perhaps combined with the properties of the transform under convolution. This is just a shot in the dark, though, but it might be worth a shot. (EDIT: Well, with that edit forbidding Fourier stuff, I've got nothing.)
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Jan 6 at 3:16












  • $begingroup$
    @Eevee I just added the note on Fourier analysis (you were quicker than my edit!). I am looking for more direct methods :) This would be more helpful to solve cases with different integration limits than infinity, and also to see an alternative way of reaching it.
    $endgroup$
    – user135626
    Jan 6 at 3:17












  • $begingroup$
    Are those limits meant to be $int_{-T/2}^{T/2}$ and $int_{-infty}^infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – John Doe
    Jan 6 at 3:25












  • $begingroup$
    This looks like something that can be solved through the use of contour integrals.
    $endgroup$
    – Aldon
    Jan 6 at 3:26










  • $begingroup$
    @JohnDoe Yes, corrected it, thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – user135626
    Jan 6 at 4:28














3












3








3





$begingroup$


How can one solve integrals of the form



$$int frac{e^{pm i 2pi t/T}}{a^{2}+t^{2}} dt, $$



in general (indefinite) and in the definite cases with integration domains over the period ($T$) or infinity,



$$int_{-T/2}^{T/2}cdots text{or} int_{-infty}^{infty}cdots, $$



where $i=sqrt{-1}$ and $aneq0$ ?



Note: please note that I am looking for direct methods, not methods that rely on Fourier analysis and the Fourier duality property.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




How can one solve integrals of the form



$$int frac{e^{pm i 2pi t/T}}{a^{2}+t^{2}} dt, $$



in general (indefinite) and in the definite cases with integration domains over the period ($T$) or infinity,



$$int_{-T/2}^{T/2}cdots text{or} int_{-infty}^{infty}cdots, $$



where $i=sqrt{-1}$ and $aneq0$ ?



Note: please note that I am looking for direct methods, not methods that rely on Fourier analysis and the Fourier duality property.







calculus integration






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 6 at 4:27







user135626

















asked Jan 6 at 3:14









user135626user135626

432413




432413












  • $begingroup$
    From what I recall from one of my classes last semester, I recall seeing Fourier transforms used to solve integrals like this, perhaps combined with the properties of the transform under convolution. This is just a shot in the dark, though, but it might be worth a shot. (EDIT: Well, with that edit forbidding Fourier stuff, I've got nothing.)
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Jan 6 at 3:16












  • $begingroup$
    @Eevee I just added the note on Fourier analysis (you were quicker than my edit!). I am looking for more direct methods :) This would be more helpful to solve cases with different integration limits than infinity, and also to see an alternative way of reaching it.
    $endgroup$
    – user135626
    Jan 6 at 3:17












  • $begingroup$
    Are those limits meant to be $int_{-T/2}^{T/2}$ and $int_{-infty}^infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – John Doe
    Jan 6 at 3:25












  • $begingroup$
    This looks like something that can be solved through the use of contour integrals.
    $endgroup$
    – Aldon
    Jan 6 at 3:26










  • $begingroup$
    @JohnDoe Yes, corrected it, thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – user135626
    Jan 6 at 4:28


















  • $begingroup$
    From what I recall from one of my classes last semester, I recall seeing Fourier transforms used to solve integrals like this, perhaps combined with the properties of the transform under convolution. This is just a shot in the dark, though, but it might be worth a shot. (EDIT: Well, with that edit forbidding Fourier stuff, I've got nothing.)
    $endgroup$
    – Eevee Trainer
    Jan 6 at 3:16












  • $begingroup$
    @Eevee I just added the note on Fourier analysis (you were quicker than my edit!). I am looking for more direct methods :) This would be more helpful to solve cases with different integration limits than infinity, and also to see an alternative way of reaching it.
    $endgroup$
    – user135626
    Jan 6 at 3:17












  • $begingroup$
    Are those limits meant to be $int_{-T/2}^{T/2}$ and $int_{-infty}^infty$?
    $endgroup$
    – John Doe
    Jan 6 at 3:25












  • $begingroup$
    This looks like something that can be solved through the use of contour integrals.
    $endgroup$
    – Aldon
    Jan 6 at 3:26










  • $begingroup$
    @JohnDoe Yes, corrected it, thanks.
    $endgroup$
    – user135626
    Jan 6 at 4:28
















$begingroup$
From what I recall from one of my classes last semester, I recall seeing Fourier transforms used to solve integrals like this, perhaps combined with the properties of the transform under convolution. This is just a shot in the dark, though, but it might be worth a shot. (EDIT: Well, with that edit forbidding Fourier stuff, I've got nothing.)
$endgroup$
– Eevee Trainer
Jan 6 at 3:16






$begingroup$
From what I recall from one of my classes last semester, I recall seeing Fourier transforms used to solve integrals like this, perhaps combined with the properties of the transform under convolution. This is just a shot in the dark, though, but it might be worth a shot. (EDIT: Well, with that edit forbidding Fourier stuff, I've got nothing.)
$endgroup$
– Eevee Trainer
Jan 6 at 3:16














$begingroup$
@Eevee I just added the note on Fourier analysis (you were quicker than my edit!). I am looking for more direct methods :) This would be more helpful to solve cases with different integration limits than infinity, and also to see an alternative way of reaching it.
$endgroup$
– user135626
Jan 6 at 3:17






$begingroup$
@Eevee I just added the note on Fourier analysis (you were quicker than my edit!). I am looking for more direct methods :) This would be more helpful to solve cases with different integration limits than infinity, and also to see an alternative way of reaching it.
$endgroup$
– user135626
Jan 6 at 3:17














$begingroup$
Are those limits meant to be $int_{-T/2}^{T/2}$ and $int_{-infty}^infty$?
$endgroup$
– John Doe
Jan 6 at 3:25






$begingroup$
Are those limits meant to be $int_{-T/2}^{T/2}$ and $int_{-infty}^infty$?
$endgroup$
– John Doe
Jan 6 at 3:25














$begingroup$
This looks like something that can be solved through the use of contour integrals.
$endgroup$
– Aldon
Jan 6 at 3:26




$begingroup$
This looks like something that can be solved through the use of contour integrals.
$endgroup$
– Aldon
Jan 6 at 3:26












$begingroup$
@JohnDoe Yes, corrected it, thanks.
$endgroup$
– user135626
Jan 6 at 4:28




$begingroup$
@JohnDoe Yes, corrected it, thanks.
$endgroup$
– user135626
Jan 6 at 4:28










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

For the definite integral case, if we have $$int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2}mathrm dt$$then we can evaluate this using contour integration by picking a semi-circular contour in the upper half plane. This encloses a simple pole at $t=ai$, and it can be shown that as the radius of the semi-circle tends to $infty$, the contribution to the integral from the curved part of the contour is zero. So the integral is equal to $$2pi i,text{Res}left(frac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2},airight)=2pi i frac{e^{-2pi a/T}}{2ai}=fracpi ae^{-2pi a/T}$$





For $$int_{-T/2}^{T/2}frac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2}mathrm dt$$we have that this integral equals $$int_0^pifrac{e^{pi i e^{itheta}}}{a^2+T^2/4cdot e^{2itheta}}(T/2) e^{itheta}imathrm dtheta+fracpi ae^{-2pi a/T}textbf 1_{[0,T/2]}(|a|)$$ where $textbf 1_{A}(x)=begin{cases}1&xin A\0&xnotin Aend{cases}$ is an indicator function. I am not sure of a simple way to compute this integral.





The indefinite case is, of course, the hardest.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    1












    $begingroup$

    The indefinite integral can't be done using elementary functions. It can be expressed in terms of special functions. Thus Maple writes it as



    $$ {frac {i}{2a} left( {{rm e}^{-{frac {2pi,a}{T}}}}{rm Ei}_1
    left( -{frac {2pi, left( it+a right) }{T}} right) -{
    {rm e}^{{frac {2pi,a}{T}}}}{rm Ei}_1 left(-{frac {2pi,
    left( it-a right) }{T}} right) right) }$$



    EDIT: The fact that there is no elementary antiderivative can be proven. It follows from the Risch theory (actually this case is a theorem of Liouville, IIRC) that the only cases where $int r(t) exp(a t); dt$ is elementary, where $a$ is a nonzero constant and $r(t)$ is a rational function, is where the antiderivatives are of the form $R(t) exp(a t) + c$, and then $r(t) = R'(t) + a R(t)$. In particular, this can't happen if $r(t)$ has a simple pole.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$













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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes








      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      3












      $begingroup$

      For the definite integral case, if we have $$int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2}mathrm dt$$then we can evaluate this using contour integration by picking a semi-circular contour in the upper half plane. This encloses a simple pole at $t=ai$, and it can be shown that as the radius of the semi-circle tends to $infty$, the contribution to the integral from the curved part of the contour is zero. So the integral is equal to $$2pi i,text{Res}left(frac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2},airight)=2pi i frac{e^{-2pi a/T}}{2ai}=fracpi ae^{-2pi a/T}$$





      For $$int_{-T/2}^{T/2}frac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2}mathrm dt$$we have that this integral equals $$int_0^pifrac{e^{pi i e^{itheta}}}{a^2+T^2/4cdot e^{2itheta}}(T/2) e^{itheta}imathrm dtheta+fracpi ae^{-2pi a/T}textbf 1_{[0,T/2]}(|a|)$$ where $textbf 1_{A}(x)=begin{cases}1&xin A\0&xnotin Aend{cases}$ is an indicator function. I am not sure of a simple way to compute this integral.





      The indefinite case is, of course, the hardest.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$


















        3












        $begingroup$

        For the definite integral case, if we have $$int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2}mathrm dt$$then we can evaluate this using contour integration by picking a semi-circular contour in the upper half plane. This encloses a simple pole at $t=ai$, and it can be shown that as the radius of the semi-circle tends to $infty$, the contribution to the integral from the curved part of the contour is zero. So the integral is equal to $$2pi i,text{Res}left(frac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2},airight)=2pi i frac{e^{-2pi a/T}}{2ai}=fracpi ae^{-2pi a/T}$$





        For $$int_{-T/2}^{T/2}frac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2}mathrm dt$$we have that this integral equals $$int_0^pifrac{e^{pi i e^{itheta}}}{a^2+T^2/4cdot e^{2itheta}}(T/2) e^{itheta}imathrm dtheta+fracpi ae^{-2pi a/T}textbf 1_{[0,T/2]}(|a|)$$ where $textbf 1_{A}(x)=begin{cases}1&xin A\0&xnotin Aend{cases}$ is an indicator function. I am not sure of a simple way to compute this integral.





        The indefinite case is, of course, the hardest.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$
















          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          For the definite integral case, if we have $$int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2}mathrm dt$$then we can evaluate this using contour integration by picking a semi-circular contour in the upper half plane. This encloses a simple pole at $t=ai$, and it can be shown that as the radius of the semi-circle tends to $infty$, the contribution to the integral from the curved part of the contour is zero. So the integral is equal to $$2pi i,text{Res}left(frac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2},airight)=2pi i frac{e^{-2pi a/T}}{2ai}=fracpi ae^{-2pi a/T}$$





          For $$int_{-T/2}^{T/2}frac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2}mathrm dt$$we have that this integral equals $$int_0^pifrac{e^{pi i e^{itheta}}}{a^2+T^2/4cdot e^{2itheta}}(T/2) e^{itheta}imathrm dtheta+fracpi ae^{-2pi a/T}textbf 1_{[0,T/2]}(|a|)$$ where $textbf 1_{A}(x)=begin{cases}1&xin A\0&xnotin Aend{cases}$ is an indicator function. I am not sure of a simple way to compute this integral.





          The indefinite case is, of course, the hardest.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          For the definite integral case, if we have $$int_{-infty}^inftyfrac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2}mathrm dt$$then we can evaluate this using contour integration by picking a semi-circular contour in the upper half plane. This encloses a simple pole at $t=ai$, and it can be shown that as the radius of the semi-circle tends to $infty$, the contribution to the integral from the curved part of the contour is zero. So the integral is equal to $$2pi i,text{Res}left(frac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2},airight)=2pi i frac{e^{-2pi a/T}}{2ai}=fracpi ae^{-2pi a/T}$$





          For $$int_{-T/2}^{T/2}frac{e^{2pi i t/T}}{a^2+t^2}mathrm dt$$we have that this integral equals $$int_0^pifrac{e^{pi i e^{itheta}}}{a^2+T^2/4cdot e^{2itheta}}(T/2) e^{itheta}imathrm dtheta+fracpi ae^{-2pi a/T}textbf 1_{[0,T/2]}(|a|)$$ where $textbf 1_{A}(x)=begin{cases}1&xin A\0&xnotin Aend{cases}$ is an indicator function. I am not sure of a simple way to compute this integral.





          The indefinite case is, of course, the hardest.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 6 at 3:47

























          answered Jan 6 at 3:30









          John DoeJohn Doe

          11.1k11238




          11.1k11238























              1












              $begingroup$

              The indefinite integral can't be done using elementary functions. It can be expressed in terms of special functions. Thus Maple writes it as



              $$ {frac {i}{2a} left( {{rm e}^{-{frac {2pi,a}{T}}}}{rm Ei}_1
              left( -{frac {2pi, left( it+a right) }{T}} right) -{
              {rm e}^{{frac {2pi,a}{T}}}}{rm Ei}_1 left(-{frac {2pi,
              left( it-a right) }{T}} right) right) }$$



              EDIT: The fact that there is no elementary antiderivative can be proven. It follows from the Risch theory (actually this case is a theorem of Liouville, IIRC) that the only cases where $int r(t) exp(a t); dt$ is elementary, where $a$ is a nonzero constant and $r(t)$ is a rational function, is where the antiderivatives are of the form $R(t) exp(a t) + c$, and then $r(t) = R'(t) + a R(t)$. In particular, this can't happen if $r(t)$ has a simple pole.






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                1












                $begingroup$

                The indefinite integral can't be done using elementary functions. It can be expressed in terms of special functions. Thus Maple writes it as



                $$ {frac {i}{2a} left( {{rm e}^{-{frac {2pi,a}{T}}}}{rm Ei}_1
                left( -{frac {2pi, left( it+a right) }{T}} right) -{
                {rm e}^{{frac {2pi,a}{T}}}}{rm Ei}_1 left(-{frac {2pi,
                left( it-a right) }{T}} right) right) }$$



                EDIT: The fact that there is no elementary antiderivative can be proven. It follows from the Risch theory (actually this case is a theorem of Liouville, IIRC) that the only cases where $int r(t) exp(a t); dt$ is elementary, where $a$ is a nonzero constant and $r(t)$ is a rational function, is where the antiderivatives are of the form $R(t) exp(a t) + c$, and then $r(t) = R'(t) + a R(t)$. In particular, this can't happen if $r(t)$ has a simple pole.






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  1












                  1








                  1





                  $begingroup$

                  The indefinite integral can't be done using elementary functions. It can be expressed in terms of special functions. Thus Maple writes it as



                  $$ {frac {i}{2a} left( {{rm e}^{-{frac {2pi,a}{T}}}}{rm Ei}_1
                  left( -{frac {2pi, left( it+a right) }{T}} right) -{
                  {rm e}^{{frac {2pi,a}{T}}}}{rm Ei}_1 left(-{frac {2pi,
                  left( it-a right) }{T}} right) right) }$$



                  EDIT: The fact that there is no elementary antiderivative can be proven. It follows from the Risch theory (actually this case is a theorem of Liouville, IIRC) that the only cases where $int r(t) exp(a t); dt$ is elementary, where $a$ is a nonzero constant and $r(t)$ is a rational function, is where the antiderivatives are of the form $R(t) exp(a t) + c$, and then $r(t) = R'(t) + a R(t)$. In particular, this can't happen if $r(t)$ has a simple pole.






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  The indefinite integral can't be done using elementary functions. It can be expressed in terms of special functions. Thus Maple writes it as



                  $$ {frac {i}{2a} left( {{rm e}^{-{frac {2pi,a}{T}}}}{rm Ei}_1
                  left( -{frac {2pi, left( it+a right) }{T}} right) -{
                  {rm e}^{{frac {2pi,a}{T}}}}{rm Ei}_1 left(-{frac {2pi,
                  left( it-a right) }{T}} right) right) }$$



                  EDIT: The fact that there is no elementary antiderivative can be proven. It follows from the Risch theory (actually this case is a theorem of Liouville, IIRC) that the only cases where $int r(t) exp(a t); dt$ is elementary, where $a$ is a nonzero constant and $r(t)$ is a rational function, is where the antiderivatives are of the form $R(t) exp(a t) + c$, and then $r(t) = R'(t) + a R(t)$. In particular, this can't happen if $r(t)$ has a simple pole.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Jan 6 at 15:41

























                  answered Jan 6 at 4:12









                  Robert IsraelRobert Israel

                  321k23210462




                  321k23210462






























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