Finite element method for nonlinear differential equation












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I encounter this problem $$frac{df(u(x))}{dx} = g(x)$$ with $$u(0) = u(1) = 0$$ I first convert it to weak form $f(u(x))v(x)]^1_0 - int^{1}_0 frac{dv(x)}{dx}f(u(x))dx =- int^{1}_0 frac{dv(x)}{dx}f(u(x))dx = int^{1}_0v(x)g(x)dx $ by multiplying a test function $v(x)$. Then how should I write it in matrix form? The right hand side does not depend on $u$ explicit.



Thanks in advance.










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  • $begingroup$
    Set $G(x)=f(0)+int_0^xg(s),ds$, then you just have to solve the inverse function problem $f(u(x))=G(x)$ using Newton and some version of path-following. There is no reason why a first order ODE should satisfy two boundary conditions.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 6 at 11:15










  • $begingroup$
    @LutzL variable is x! Sorry about that.
    $endgroup$
    – metricspace
    Jan 6 at 19:43
















0












$begingroup$


I encounter this problem $$frac{df(u(x))}{dx} = g(x)$$ with $$u(0) = u(1) = 0$$ I first convert it to weak form $f(u(x))v(x)]^1_0 - int^{1}_0 frac{dv(x)}{dx}f(u(x))dx =- int^{1}_0 frac{dv(x)}{dx}f(u(x))dx = int^{1}_0v(x)g(x)dx $ by multiplying a test function $v(x)$. Then how should I write it in matrix form? The right hand side does not depend on $u$ explicit.



Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Set $G(x)=f(0)+int_0^xg(s),ds$, then you just have to solve the inverse function problem $f(u(x))=G(x)$ using Newton and some version of path-following. There is no reason why a first order ODE should satisfy two boundary conditions.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 6 at 11:15










  • $begingroup$
    @LutzL variable is x! Sorry about that.
    $endgroup$
    – metricspace
    Jan 6 at 19:43














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I encounter this problem $$frac{df(u(x))}{dx} = g(x)$$ with $$u(0) = u(1) = 0$$ I first convert it to weak form $f(u(x))v(x)]^1_0 - int^{1}_0 frac{dv(x)}{dx}f(u(x))dx =- int^{1}_0 frac{dv(x)}{dx}f(u(x))dx = int^{1}_0v(x)g(x)dx $ by multiplying a test function $v(x)$. Then how should I write it in matrix form? The right hand side does not depend on $u$ explicit.



Thanks in advance.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I encounter this problem $$frac{df(u(x))}{dx} = g(x)$$ with $$u(0) = u(1) = 0$$ I first convert it to weak form $f(u(x))v(x)]^1_0 - int^{1}_0 frac{dv(x)}{dx}f(u(x))dx =- int^{1}_0 frac{dv(x)}{dx}f(u(x))dx = int^{1}_0v(x)g(x)dx $ by multiplying a test function $v(x)$. Then how should I write it in matrix form? The right hand side does not depend on $u$ explicit.



Thanks in advance.







ordinary-differential-equations numerical-methods finite-element-method galerkin-methods






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share|cite|improve this question













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share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 6 at 19:42







metricspace

















asked Jan 6 at 10:59









metricspacemetricspace

408210




408210












  • $begingroup$
    Set $G(x)=f(0)+int_0^xg(s),ds$, then you just have to solve the inverse function problem $f(u(x))=G(x)$ using Newton and some version of path-following. There is no reason why a first order ODE should satisfy two boundary conditions.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 6 at 11:15










  • $begingroup$
    @LutzL variable is x! Sorry about that.
    $endgroup$
    – metricspace
    Jan 6 at 19:43


















  • $begingroup$
    Set $G(x)=f(0)+int_0^xg(s),ds$, then you just have to solve the inverse function problem $f(u(x))=G(x)$ using Newton and some version of path-following. There is no reason why a first order ODE should satisfy two boundary conditions.
    $endgroup$
    – LutzL
    Jan 6 at 11:15










  • $begingroup$
    @LutzL variable is x! Sorry about that.
    $endgroup$
    – metricspace
    Jan 6 at 19:43
















$begingroup$
Set $G(x)=f(0)+int_0^xg(s),ds$, then you just have to solve the inverse function problem $f(u(x))=G(x)$ using Newton and some version of path-following. There is no reason why a first order ODE should satisfy two boundary conditions.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 6 at 11:15




$begingroup$
Set $G(x)=f(0)+int_0^xg(s),ds$, then you just have to solve the inverse function problem $f(u(x))=G(x)$ using Newton and some version of path-following. There is no reason why a first order ODE should satisfy two boundary conditions.
$endgroup$
– LutzL
Jan 6 at 11:15












$begingroup$
@LutzL variable is x! Sorry about that.
$endgroup$
– metricspace
Jan 6 at 19:43




$begingroup$
@LutzL variable is x! Sorry about that.
$endgroup$
– metricspace
Jan 6 at 19:43










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