How to use Lebesgue Dominated Convergence theorem in this example?












0












$begingroup$


I have to use the DCT in order to get the value of this limit:



$$ lim_{nto infty} int_0^n biggl(frac{sin x}{x} biggr)^n dx$$



If i take $f_n = bigl(frac{sin x}{x} bigr)^n, lim_{nto infty} f_n =0 $ so it converges, but i can't tell what function to use for the domination.



My thought is that as $|sin x| le |x| $, and $space bigl|left(frac{sin x}{x} right)^n bigr| le space left|frac{sin x}{x} right|^n $ then $ space left|frac{sin x}{x} right|^n le 1$ but i feel like I'm messing up hard somewhere.



How would you proof that function is dominated?



Thanks in advance.










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$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    I have to use the DCT in order to get the value of this limit:



    $$ lim_{nto infty} int_0^n biggl(frac{sin x}{x} biggr)^n dx$$



    If i take $f_n = bigl(frac{sin x}{x} bigr)^n, lim_{nto infty} f_n =0 $ so it converges, but i can't tell what function to use for the domination.



    My thought is that as $|sin x| le |x| $, and $space bigl|left(frac{sin x}{x} right)^n bigr| le space left|frac{sin x}{x} right|^n $ then $ space left|frac{sin x}{x} right|^n le 1$ but i feel like I'm messing up hard somewhere.



    How would you proof that function is dominated?



    Thanks in advance.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I have to use the DCT in order to get the value of this limit:



      $$ lim_{nto infty} int_0^n biggl(frac{sin x}{x} biggr)^n dx$$



      If i take $f_n = bigl(frac{sin x}{x} bigr)^n, lim_{nto infty} f_n =0 $ so it converges, but i can't tell what function to use for the domination.



      My thought is that as $|sin x| le |x| $, and $space bigl|left(frac{sin x}{x} right)^n bigr| le space left|frac{sin x}{x} right|^n $ then $ space left|frac{sin x}{x} right|^n le 1$ but i feel like I'm messing up hard somewhere.



      How would you proof that function is dominated?



      Thanks in advance.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I have to use the DCT in order to get the value of this limit:



      $$ lim_{nto infty} int_0^n biggl(frac{sin x}{x} biggr)^n dx$$



      If i take $f_n = bigl(frac{sin x}{x} bigr)^n, lim_{nto infty} f_n =0 $ so it converges, but i can't tell what function to use for the domination.



      My thought is that as $|sin x| le |x| $, and $space bigl|left(frac{sin x}{x} right)^n bigr| le space left|frac{sin x}{x} right|^n $ then $ space left|frac{sin x}{x} right|^n le 1$ but i feel like I'm messing up hard somewhere.



      How would you proof that function is dominated?



      Thanks in advance.







      real-analysis measure-theory convergence






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      asked Jan 6 at 11:21









      MontyroMontyro

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          $begingroup$

          To use DCT, you have to be on the same measure space. So you should view the original integral as $int_mathbb{R} (frac{sin x}{x})^n 1_{0 le x le n} dx$. Let $f_n(x) = (frac{sin x}{x})^n 1_{0 le x le n}$ and $f(x) = 1$ for $0 le x le 1$ and $f(x) = frac{1}{x^2}$ for $x > 1$. Then $|f_n(x)| le f(x)$ for each $n ge 2$ and $x ge 0$. Since $f in L^1$, we can apply DCT.






          share|cite|improve this answer









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          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the answer, i think i see this now!
            $endgroup$
            – Montyro
            Jan 6 at 11:43











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          1 Answer
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          active

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          active

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          1












          $begingroup$

          To use DCT, you have to be on the same measure space. So you should view the original integral as $int_mathbb{R} (frac{sin x}{x})^n 1_{0 le x le n} dx$. Let $f_n(x) = (frac{sin x}{x})^n 1_{0 le x le n}$ and $f(x) = 1$ for $0 le x le 1$ and $f(x) = frac{1}{x^2}$ for $x > 1$. Then $|f_n(x)| le f(x)$ for each $n ge 2$ and $x ge 0$. Since $f in L^1$, we can apply DCT.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the answer, i think i see this now!
            $endgroup$
            – Montyro
            Jan 6 at 11:43
















          1












          $begingroup$

          To use DCT, you have to be on the same measure space. So you should view the original integral as $int_mathbb{R} (frac{sin x}{x})^n 1_{0 le x le n} dx$. Let $f_n(x) = (frac{sin x}{x})^n 1_{0 le x le n}$ and $f(x) = 1$ for $0 le x le 1$ and $f(x) = frac{1}{x^2}$ for $x > 1$. Then $|f_n(x)| le f(x)$ for each $n ge 2$ and $x ge 0$. Since $f in L^1$, we can apply DCT.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the answer, i think i see this now!
            $endgroup$
            – Montyro
            Jan 6 at 11:43














          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          To use DCT, you have to be on the same measure space. So you should view the original integral as $int_mathbb{R} (frac{sin x}{x})^n 1_{0 le x le n} dx$. Let $f_n(x) = (frac{sin x}{x})^n 1_{0 le x le n}$ and $f(x) = 1$ for $0 le x le 1$ and $f(x) = frac{1}{x^2}$ for $x > 1$. Then $|f_n(x)| le f(x)$ for each $n ge 2$ and $x ge 0$. Since $f in L^1$, we can apply DCT.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          To use DCT, you have to be on the same measure space. So you should view the original integral as $int_mathbb{R} (frac{sin x}{x})^n 1_{0 le x le n} dx$. Let $f_n(x) = (frac{sin x}{x})^n 1_{0 le x le n}$ and $f(x) = 1$ for $0 le x le 1$ and $f(x) = frac{1}{x^2}$ for $x > 1$. Then $|f_n(x)| le f(x)$ for each $n ge 2$ and $x ge 0$. Since $f in L^1$, we can apply DCT.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 6 at 11:26









          mathworker21mathworker21

          8,9171928




          8,9171928












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the answer, i think i see this now!
            $endgroup$
            – Montyro
            Jan 6 at 11:43


















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you for the answer, i think i see this now!
            $endgroup$
            – Montyro
            Jan 6 at 11:43
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you for the answer, i think i see this now!
          $endgroup$
          – Montyro
          Jan 6 at 11:43




          $begingroup$
          Thank you for the answer, i think i see this now!
          $endgroup$
          – Montyro
          Jan 6 at 11:43


















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