Infinite cyclic cover corresponding to non-zero cohomology class $alpha in H^1(x,mathbb Z)$












2












$begingroup$


I want to understand the following sentence:




Let X a compact (complex) manifold which has a non-zero cohomology class $alpha in H^1(X,mathbb Z)$. Let $pi: bar Xto X$ be the corresponding infinite cyclic covering.




What does this mean? It seems that an infinite cyclic covering is a cover with fiber $mathbb Z$.

But why does such a covering exist, and how is it related to the cohomology class?










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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    $H^1(X;G) = text{Hom}(pi_1, G)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mike Miller
    Jan 1 at 14:03










  • $begingroup$
    Your hypothetical Stiefel-Whitney class would live in $ H^1(X,mathbb Z/2)$, not in $ H^1(X,mathbb Z)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Georges Elencwajg
    Jan 1 at 14:44












  • $begingroup$
    @GeorgesElencwajg One more reason why this seems to be the wrong approach. I guess I can delete that part.
    $endgroup$
    – klirk
    Jan 1 at 15:41










  • $begingroup$
    @MikeMiller: Any ideas how to proceed from here? The only thing I could think of was that $alpha: pi_1(X) to mathbb Z = pi_1(K(mathbb Z,1))$ and so $alpha$ is induced by a map from $Xto K(mathbb Z,1)=S^1$. But this is not the map I look for.
    $endgroup$
    – klirk
    Jan 1 at 15:45








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @klirk It's standard covering space theory that homomorphisms $pi_1(X) to Bbb Z$ classify infinite cyclic covers. Do you know covering space theory? If not, look at Hatcher chapter 1.3.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    Jan 1 at 16:48
















2












$begingroup$


I want to understand the following sentence:




Let X a compact (complex) manifold which has a non-zero cohomology class $alpha in H^1(X,mathbb Z)$. Let $pi: bar Xto X$ be the corresponding infinite cyclic covering.




What does this mean? It seems that an infinite cyclic covering is a cover with fiber $mathbb Z$.

But why does such a covering exist, and how is it related to the cohomology class?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    $H^1(X;G) = text{Hom}(pi_1, G)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mike Miller
    Jan 1 at 14:03










  • $begingroup$
    Your hypothetical Stiefel-Whitney class would live in $ H^1(X,mathbb Z/2)$, not in $ H^1(X,mathbb Z)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Georges Elencwajg
    Jan 1 at 14:44












  • $begingroup$
    @GeorgesElencwajg One more reason why this seems to be the wrong approach. I guess I can delete that part.
    $endgroup$
    – klirk
    Jan 1 at 15:41










  • $begingroup$
    @MikeMiller: Any ideas how to proceed from here? The only thing I could think of was that $alpha: pi_1(X) to mathbb Z = pi_1(K(mathbb Z,1))$ and so $alpha$ is induced by a map from $Xto K(mathbb Z,1)=S^1$. But this is not the map I look for.
    $endgroup$
    – klirk
    Jan 1 at 15:45








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @klirk It's standard covering space theory that homomorphisms $pi_1(X) to Bbb Z$ classify infinite cyclic covers. Do you know covering space theory? If not, look at Hatcher chapter 1.3.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    Jan 1 at 16:48














2












2








2


1



$begingroup$


I want to understand the following sentence:




Let X a compact (complex) manifold which has a non-zero cohomology class $alpha in H^1(X,mathbb Z)$. Let $pi: bar Xto X$ be the corresponding infinite cyclic covering.




What does this mean? It seems that an infinite cyclic covering is a cover with fiber $mathbb Z$.

But why does such a covering exist, and how is it related to the cohomology class?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I want to understand the following sentence:




Let X a compact (complex) manifold which has a non-zero cohomology class $alpha in H^1(X,mathbb Z)$. Let $pi: bar Xto X$ be the corresponding infinite cyclic covering.




What does this mean? It seems that an infinite cyclic covering is a cover with fiber $mathbb Z$.

But why does such a covering exist, and how is it related to the cohomology class?







geometry differential-geometry algebraic-topology complex-geometry covering-spaces






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 1 at 15:41







klirk

















asked Jan 1 at 12:45









klirkklirk

2,619530




2,619530












  • $begingroup$
    $H^1(X;G) = text{Hom}(pi_1, G)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mike Miller
    Jan 1 at 14:03










  • $begingroup$
    Your hypothetical Stiefel-Whitney class would live in $ H^1(X,mathbb Z/2)$, not in $ H^1(X,mathbb Z)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Georges Elencwajg
    Jan 1 at 14:44












  • $begingroup$
    @GeorgesElencwajg One more reason why this seems to be the wrong approach. I guess I can delete that part.
    $endgroup$
    – klirk
    Jan 1 at 15:41










  • $begingroup$
    @MikeMiller: Any ideas how to proceed from here? The only thing I could think of was that $alpha: pi_1(X) to mathbb Z = pi_1(K(mathbb Z,1))$ and so $alpha$ is induced by a map from $Xto K(mathbb Z,1)=S^1$. But this is not the map I look for.
    $endgroup$
    – klirk
    Jan 1 at 15:45








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @klirk It's standard covering space theory that homomorphisms $pi_1(X) to Bbb Z$ classify infinite cyclic covers. Do you know covering space theory? If not, look at Hatcher chapter 1.3.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    Jan 1 at 16:48


















  • $begingroup$
    $H^1(X;G) = text{Hom}(pi_1, G)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Mike Miller
    Jan 1 at 14:03










  • $begingroup$
    Your hypothetical Stiefel-Whitney class would live in $ H^1(X,mathbb Z/2)$, not in $ H^1(X,mathbb Z)$.
    $endgroup$
    – Georges Elencwajg
    Jan 1 at 14:44












  • $begingroup$
    @GeorgesElencwajg One more reason why this seems to be the wrong approach. I guess I can delete that part.
    $endgroup$
    – klirk
    Jan 1 at 15:41










  • $begingroup$
    @MikeMiller: Any ideas how to proceed from here? The only thing I could think of was that $alpha: pi_1(X) to mathbb Z = pi_1(K(mathbb Z,1))$ and so $alpha$ is induced by a map from $Xto K(mathbb Z,1)=S^1$. But this is not the map I look for.
    $endgroup$
    – klirk
    Jan 1 at 15:45








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @klirk It's standard covering space theory that homomorphisms $pi_1(X) to Bbb Z$ classify infinite cyclic covers. Do you know covering space theory? If not, look at Hatcher chapter 1.3.
    $endgroup$
    – Balarka Sen
    Jan 1 at 16:48
















$begingroup$
$H^1(X;G) = text{Hom}(pi_1, G)$.
$endgroup$
– Mike Miller
Jan 1 at 14:03




$begingroup$
$H^1(X;G) = text{Hom}(pi_1, G)$.
$endgroup$
– Mike Miller
Jan 1 at 14:03












$begingroup$
Your hypothetical Stiefel-Whitney class would live in $ H^1(X,mathbb Z/2)$, not in $ H^1(X,mathbb Z)$.
$endgroup$
– Georges Elencwajg
Jan 1 at 14:44






$begingroup$
Your hypothetical Stiefel-Whitney class would live in $ H^1(X,mathbb Z/2)$, not in $ H^1(X,mathbb Z)$.
$endgroup$
– Georges Elencwajg
Jan 1 at 14:44














$begingroup$
@GeorgesElencwajg One more reason why this seems to be the wrong approach. I guess I can delete that part.
$endgroup$
– klirk
Jan 1 at 15:41




$begingroup$
@GeorgesElencwajg One more reason why this seems to be the wrong approach. I guess I can delete that part.
$endgroup$
– klirk
Jan 1 at 15:41












$begingroup$
@MikeMiller: Any ideas how to proceed from here? The only thing I could think of was that $alpha: pi_1(X) to mathbb Z = pi_1(K(mathbb Z,1))$ and so $alpha$ is induced by a map from $Xto K(mathbb Z,1)=S^1$. But this is not the map I look for.
$endgroup$
– klirk
Jan 1 at 15:45






$begingroup$
@MikeMiller: Any ideas how to proceed from here? The only thing I could think of was that $alpha: pi_1(X) to mathbb Z = pi_1(K(mathbb Z,1))$ and so $alpha$ is induced by a map from $Xto K(mathbb Z,1)=S^1$. But this is not the map I look for.
$endgroup$
– klirk
Jan 1 at 15:45






1




1




$begingroup$
@klirk It's standard covering space theory that homomorphisms $pi_1(X) to Bbb Z$ classify infinite cyclic covers. Do you know covering space theory? If not, look at Hatcher chapter 1.3.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
Jan 1 at 16:48




$begingroup$
@klirk It's standard covering space theory that homomorphisms $pi_1(X) to Bbb Z$ classify infinite cyclic covers. Do you know covering space theory? If not, look at Hatcher chapter 1.3.
$endgroup$
– Balarka Sen
Jan 1 at 16:48










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