Proof $x^3+ax^2+bx+c-e^x=0$ has at least one solution












1












$begingroup$


I need to show that the following equation has at least one solution: $$x^3+ax^2+bx+c=e^x$$ where $a,b,c in mathbb{R}$.



What I did:

I defined the real-valued function $f(x)=x^3+ax^2+bx+c-e^x$
and showed that for $c=1$ we get $x=0$ as a solution, and that for $c>1$ we get a solution as $f(0)>0$ and $lim_{x to infty} f(x)=- infty$

but Im stuck with the case of $c<1$.

Any suggestions? or other ways of proving this statement. any help will be much appreciated










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You could always find $f'''(x)=6-e^x$ and work backwards.
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 1 at 9:12










  • $begingroup$
    could you elaborate a bit further pls?
    $endgroup$
    – user114138
    Jan 1 at 9:13










  • $begingroup$
    If you know $f'''(x)$ then you can use its properties (for example, set to zero) to imply properties about $f''(x)$ (for example, increasing or decreasing). Do the same for $f'(x)$ and finally $f(x)$.
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 1 at 9:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know it is true?
    $endgroup$
    – mikado
    Jan 1 at 9:16






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    As written, the claim is false. $x^3 - x^2 - mathrm{e}^x$ has maximum value $-0.8559 dots$, so is never zero. Do you have additional constraints not present in your Question?
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Towers
    Jan 1 at 9:21
















1












$begingroup$


I need to show that the following equation has at least one solution: $$x^3+ax^2+bx+c=e^x$$ where $a,b,c in mathbb{R}$.



What I did:

I defined the real-valued function $f(x)=x^3+ax^2+bx+c-e^x$
and showed that for $c=1$ we get $x=0$ as a solution, and that for $c>1$ we get a solution as $f(0)>0$ and $lim_{x to infty} f(x)=- infty$

but Im stuck with the case of $c<1$.

Any suggestions? or other ways of proving this statement. any help will be much appreciated










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    You could always find $f'''(x)=6-e^x$ and work backwards.
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 1 at 9:12










  • $begingroup$
    could you elaborate a bit further pls?
    $endgroup$
    – user114138
    Jan 1 at 9:13










  • $begingroup$
    If you know $f'''(x)$ then you can use its properties (for example, set to zero) to imply properties about $f''(x)$ (for example, increasing or decreasing). Do the same for $f'(x)$ and finally $f(x)$.
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 1 at 9:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know it is true?
    $endgroup$
    – mikado
    Jan 1 at 9:16






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    As written, the claim is false. $x^3 - x^2 - mathrm{e}^x$ has maximum value $-0.8559 dots$, so is never zero. Do you have additional constraints not present in your Question?
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Towers
    Jan 1 at 9:21














1












1








1





$begingroup$


I need to show that the following equation has at least one solution: $$x^3+ax^2+bx+c=e^x$$ where $a,b,c in mathbb{R}$.



What I did:

I defined the real-valued function $f(x)=x^3+ax^2+bx+c-e^x$
and showed that for $c=1$ we get $x=0$ as a solution, and that for $c>1$ we get a solution as $f(0)>0$ and $lim_{x to infty} f(x)=- infty$

but Im stuck with the case of $c<1$.

Any suggestions? or other ways of proving this statement. any help will be much appreciated










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I need to show that the following equation has at least one solution: $$x^3+ax^2+bx+c=e^x$$ where $a,b,c in mathbb{R}$.



What I did:

I defined the real-valued function $f(x)=x^3+ax^2+bx+c-e^x$
and showed that for $c=1$ we get $x=0$ as a solution, and that for $c>1$ we get a solution as $f(0)>0$ and $lim_{x to infty} f(x)=- infty$

but Im stuck with the case of $c<1$.

Any suggestions? or other ways of proving this statement. any help will be much appreciated







calculus proof-verification continuity






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 1 at 10:40









José Alejandro Aburto Araneda

825110




825110










asked Jan 1 at 9:06









user114138user114138

504211




504211












  • $begingroup$
    You could always find $f'''(x)=6-e^x$ and work backwards.
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 1 at 9:12










  • $begingroup$
    could you elaborate a bit further pls?
    $endgroup$
    – user114138
    Jan 1 at 9:13










  • $begingroup$
    If you know $f'''(x)$ then you can use its properties (for example, set to zero) to imply properties about $f''(x)$ (for example, increasing or decreasing). Do the same for $f'(x)$ and finally $f(x)$.
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 1 at 9:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know it is true?
    $endgroup$
    – mikado
    Jan 1 at 9:16






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    As written, the claim is false. $x^3 - x^2 - mathrm{e}^x$ has maximum value $-0.8559 dots$, so is never zero. Do you have additional constraints not present in your Question?
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Towers
    Jan 1 at 9:21


















  • $begingroup$
    You could always find $f'''(x)=6-e^x$ and work backwards.
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 1 at 9:12










  • $begingroup$
    could you elaborate a bit further pls?
    $endgroup$
    – user114138
    Jan 1 at 9:13










  • $begingroup$
    If you know $f'''(x)$ then you can use its properties (for example, set to zero) to imply properties about $f''(x)$ (for example, increasing or decreasing). Do the same for $f'(x)$ and finally $f(x)$.
    $endgroup$
    – TheSimpliFire
    Jan 1 at 9:15






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Do you know it is true?
    $endgroup$
    – mikado
    Jan 1 at 9:16






  • 3




    $begingroup$
    As written, the claim is false. $x^3 - x^2 - mathrm{e}^x$ has maximum value $-0.8559 dots$, so is never zero. Do you have additional constraints not present in your Question?
    $endgroup$
    – Eric Towers
    Jan 1 at 9:21
















$begingroup$
You could always find $f'''(x)=6-e^x$ and work backwards.
$endgroup$
– TheSimpliFire
Jan 1 at 9:12




$begingroup$
You could always find $f'''(x)=6-e^x$ and work backwards.
$endgroup$
– TheSimpliFire
Jan 1 at 9:12












$begingroup$
could you elaborate a bit further pls?
$endgroup$
– user114138
Jan 1 at 9:13




$begingroup$
could you elaborate a bit further pls?
$endgroup$
– user114138
Jan 1 at 9:13












$begingroup$
If you know $f'''(x)$ then you can use its properties (for example, set to zero) to imply properties about $f''(x)$ (for example, increasing or decreasing). Do the same for $f'(x)$ and finally $f(x)$.
$endgroup$
– TheSimpliFire
Jan 1 at 9:15




$begingroup$
If you know $f'''(x)$ then you can use its properties (for example, set to zero) to imply properties about $f''(x)$ (for example, increasing or decreasing). Do the same for $f'(x)$ and finally $f(x)$.
$endgroup$
– TheSimpliFire
Jan 1 at 9:15




1




1




$begingroup$
Do you know it is true?
$endgroup$
– mikado
Jan 1 at 9:16




$begingroup$
Do you know it is true?
$endgroup$
– mikado
Jan 1 at 9:16




3




3




$begingroup$
As written, the claim is false. $x^3 - x^2 - mathrm{e}^x$ has maximum value $-0.8559 dots$, so is never zero. Do you have additional constraints not present in your Question?
$endgroup$
– Eric Towers
Jan 1 at 9:21




$begingroup$
As written, the claim is false. $x^3 - x^2 - mathrm{e}^x$ has maximum value $-0.8559 dots$, so is never zero. Do you have additional constraints not present in your Question?
$endgroup$
– Eric Towers
Jan 1 at 9:21










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















5












$begingroup$

It is false, in general : note that ${x^3 over 6}< exp x$.



Indeed if $x<0$ this is clear as the rhs is $<0$, and for $x>0$ this follows the Taylor series of the exponential $exp x = 1+x+ x^2/2+x^6/6+ sum _{n>3} x^n/n!$.



Then, for all $x$, $x^3< exp (x+ ln 6)$.



With $y= x+ln 6$; we get that for all $y$, $(y-ln 6)^3 < exp y$, a counter example






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I used $y$ : $(y-ln 6)^3$ has the required form.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas
    Jan 1 at 17:32










  • $begingroup$
    Yes it is $(y-ln 6)^3=y^3- 3ln 6 y^2+3{ln 6 } ^2y-{ ln 6}^3$
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas
    Jan 2 at 18:04



















0












$begingroup$

The result is false. Let be $f(x)=e^x-x^3+Cx^2$. It is a convex function for some $Cinmathbb{R}$, since $f(x)''=e^x-6x+C$, let $h(x)=e^x-6x$, it has minimum on $log(6)$, and $h(log(6))=6(1-log(6))$, now take $C=6log(6)$, and you have that $f(x)''=6>0$. So that, as $f$ is strictrly convex it has at most one minimum, let $m=inf f$, the function $g(x)=f(x)+|m|+1$ is of the form $e^x-p(x)$, where $p(x)$ is a real monic polynomial (leader coefficient equal to $1$) of degree 3, so that your result is not true in general.






share|cite|improve this answer









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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    5












    $begingroup$

    It is false, in general : note that ${x^3 over 6}< exp x$.



    Indeed if $x<0$ this is clear as the rhs is $<0$, and for $x>0$ this follows the Taylor series of the exponential $exp x = 1+x+ x^2/2+x^6/6+ sum _{n>3} x^n/n!$.



    Then, for all $x$, $x^3< exp (x+ ln 6)$.



    With $y= x+ln 6$; we get that for all $y$, $(y-ln 6)^3 < exp y$, a counter example






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I used $y$ : $(y-ln 6)^3$ has the required form.
      $endgroup$
      – Thomas
      Jan 1 at 17:32










    • $begingroup$
      Yes it is $(y-ln 6)^3=y^3- 3ln 6 y^2+3{ln 6 } ^2y-{ ln 6}^3$
      $endgroup$
      – Thomas
      Jan 2 at 18:04
















    5












    $begingroup$

    It is false, in general : note that ${x^3 over 6}< exp x$.



    Indeed if $x<0$ this is clear as the rhs is $<0$, and for $x>0$ this follows the Taylor series of the exponential $exp x = 1+x+ x^2/2+x^6/6+ sum _{n>3} x^n/n!$.



    Then, for all $x$, $x^3< exp (x+ ln 6)$.



    With $y= x+ln 6$; we get that for all $y$, $(y-ln 6)^3 < exp y$, a counter example






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      I used $y$ : $(y-ln 6)^3$ has the required form.
      $endgroup$
      – Thomas
      Jan 1 at 17:32










    • $begingroup$
      Yes it is $(y-ln 6)^3=y^3- 3ln 6 y^2+3{ln 6 } ^2y-{ ln 6}^3$
      $endgroup$
      – Thomas
      Jan 2 at 18:04














    5












    5








    5





    $begingroup$

    It is false, in general : note that ${x^3 over 6}< exp x$.



    Indeed if $x<0$ this is clear as the rhs is $<0$, and for $x>0$ this follows the Taylor series of the exponential $exp x = 1+x+ x^2/2+x^6/6+ sum _{n>3} x^n/n!$.



    Then, for all $x$, $x^3< exp (x+ ln 6)$.



    With $y= x+ln 6$; we get that for all $y$, $(y-ln 6)^3 < exp y$, a counter example






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$



    It is false, in general : note that ${x^3 over 6}< exp x$.



    Indeed if $x<0$ this is clear as the rhs is $<0$, and for $x>0$ this follows the Taylor series of the exponential $exp x = 1+x+ x^2/2+x^6/6+ sum _{n>3} x^n/n!$.



    Then, for all $x$, $x^3< exp (x+ ln 6)$.



    With $y= x+ln 6$; we get that for all $y$, $(y-ln 6)^3 < exp y$, a counter example







    share|cite|improve this answer












    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer










    answered Jan 1 at 9:22









    ThomasThomas

    3,889510




    3,889510












    • $begingroup$
      I used $y$ : $(y-ln 6)^3$ has the required form.
      $endgroup$
      – Thomas
      Jan 1 at 17:32










    • $begingroup$
      Yes it is $(y-ln 6)^3=y^3- 3ln 6 y^2+3{ln 6 } ^2y-{ ln 6}^3$
      $endgroup$
      – Thomas
      Jan 2 at 18:04


















    • $begingroup$
      I used $y$ : $(y-ln 6)^3$ has the required form.
      $endgroup$
      – Thomas
      Jan 1 at 17:32










    • $begingroup$
      Yes it is $(y-ln 6)^3=y^3- 3ln 6 y^2+3{ln 6 } ^2y-{ ln 6}^3$
      $endgroup$
      – Thomas
      Jan 2 at 18:04
















    $begingroup$
    I used $y$ : $(y-ln 6)^3$ has the required form.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas
    Jan 1 at 17:32




    $begingroup$
    I used $y$ : $(y-ln 6)^3$ has the required form.
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas
    Jan 1 at 17:32












    $begingroup$
    Yes it is $(y-ln 6)^3=y^3- 3ln 6 y^2+3{ln 6 } ^2y-{ ln 6}^3$
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas
    Jan 2 at 18:04




    $begingroup$
    Yes it is $(y-ln 6)^3=y^3- 3ln 6 y^2+3{ln 6 } ^2y-{ ln 6}^3$
    $endgroup$
    – Thomas
    Jan 2 at 18:04











    0












    $begingroup$

    The result is false. Let be $f(x)=e^x-x^3+Cx^2$. It is a convex function for some $Cinmathbb{R}$, since $f(x)''=e^x-6x+C$, let $h(x)=e^x-6x$, it has minimum on $log(6)$, and $h(log(6))=6(1-log(6))$, now take $C=6log(6)$, and you have that $f(x)''=6>0$. So that, as $f$ is strictrly convex it has at most one minimum, let $m=inf f$, the function $g(x)=f(x)+|m|+1$ is of the form $e^x-p(x)$, where $p(x)$ is a real monic polynomial (leader coefficient equal to $1$) of degree 3, so that your result is not true in general.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      The result is false. Let be $f(x)=e^x-x^3+Cx^2$. It is a convex function for some $Cinmathbb{R}$, since $f(x)''=e^x-6x+C$, let $h(x)=e^x-6x$, it has minimum on $log(6)$, and $h(log(6))=6(1-log(6))$, now take $C=6log(6)$, and you have that $f(x)''=6>0$. So that, as $f$ is strictrly convex it has at most one minimum, let $m=inf f$, the function $g(x)=f(x)+|m|+1$ is of the form $e^x-p(x)$, where $p(x)$ is a real monic polynomial (leader coefficient equal to $1$) of degree 3, so that your result is not true in general.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        The result is false. Let be $f(x)=e^x-x^3+Cx^2$. It is a convex function for some $Cinmathbb{R}$, since $f(x)''=e^x-6x+C$, let $h(x)=e^x-6x$, it has minimum on $log(6)$, and $h(log(6))=6(1-log(6))$, now take $C=6log(6)$, and you have that $f(x)''=6>0$. So that, as $f$ is strictrly convex it has at most one minimum, let $m=inf f$, the function $g(x)=f(x)+|m|+1$ is of the form $e^x-p(x)$, where $p(x)$ is a real monic polynomial (leader coefficient equal to $1$) of degree 3, so that your result is not true in general.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        The result is false. Let be $f(x)=e^x-x^3+Cx^2$. It is a convex function for some $Cinmathbb{R}$, since $f(x)''=e^x-6x+C$, let $h(x)=e^x-6x$, it has minimum on $log(6)$, and $h(log(6))=6(1-log(6))$, now take $C=6log(6)$, and you have that $f(x)''=6>0$. So that, as $f$ is strictrly convex it has at most one minimum, let $m=inf f$, the function $g(x)=f(x)+|m|+1$ is of the form $e^x-p(x)$, where $p(x)$ is a real monic polynomial (leader coefficient equal to $1$) of degree 3, so that your result is not true in general.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 1 at 15:11









        José Alejandro Aburto AranedaJosé Alejandro Aburto Araneda

        825110




        825110






























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