Legendre Series Recurrence Relation Divergence at $x=pm1$, using Gauss test












1












$begingroup$


How to show that the Legendre Series solution $y_{even}$ and $y_{odd}$, diverges as $x = pm1 $.



$y_{even} = sum_{j=0,2,ldots}^infty a_jx^j$, where $a_{j+2}=frac{j(j+1)-n(n+1)}{(j+1)(j+2)}a_j$.



$y_{odd}=sum_{j=1,3,ldots}^infty a_jx^j$, where $a_{j+2}=frac{(j+1)(j+2)-n(n+1)}{(j+2)(j+3)}a_j$.



My Work:



I have shown that for both the $y_{even}$, and the $y_{odd}$, solutions, that $lim |frac{a_{j+1}}{a_j}|$, as $j rightarrow infty$ is $1$.



I cannot find the next part? How to proceed?



P.S. This problem is from Arfken. Problem #8.3.1 (7th Ed.)




Update:
I have been thinking about this for a while, and I have come up with this. I am using the Gauss test.




I am taking the $y_{even}$ solution, and defining $alpha = left|frac{a_{2j}}{a_{2j+2}}right| = frac{(2j+1)(2j+2)}{(2j-n)(2j+n-1)}$.



Now after some manipulation, I get my $alpha$ to be,



$$alpha=1+frac1j+frac{n(n+1)(j+1)}{(4j^2+2j-n(n+1))j}$$



Noe according to the Gauss test, one has to check that my third term, viz., $frac{n(n+1)(j+1)}{(4j^2+2j-n(n+1))j}$, which, I should be able to manipulate to $frac{C_j}{j^r}$; for $lim_{jtoinfty}C_j$, should be finite, then only I can say that, the series does diverge for $xrightarrowpm1$.



Okay, thought for some more time, and I have a solution to this problem. Now I can manipulate the third term in $alpha$, which would lead me to,



$$frac{n(n+1)(1+frac1j)}{j^2 left(4+frac2j-frac{n(n+1)}{j^2} right) }$$



which I can identify straight as my $frac{c_j}{j^r}$ term in my Gauss test. So here $r=2$, and $c_j=frac{n(n+1)(1+frac1j)}{left(4+frac2j-frac{n(n+1)}{j^2} right) }$. And when I do take the $lim_{jtoinfty}c_j=frac{n(n+1)}4$, so it does remain bounded.



So now I can draw a conclusion about the convergence/divergence at $xrightarrowpm1$ for the Legendre ODE. Now my $h=1$, and $r(equiv2)>1$, and also $lim_{jtoinfty}=frac{n(n+1)}4$, so I can say with confirmation, that at $x=pm1$, the series diverges!



This completes the proof, I guess.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    How are those $;n;$ in the recursive formula for the coefficients related to $;j;$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Timbuc
    Jan 13 '15 at 11:36










  • $begingroup$
    @Timbuc: Its nothing but the $n(n+1)$ term in the Legendre Differential Equation.
    $endgroup$
    – sbp
    Jan 13 '15 at 11:46










  • $begingroup$
    still I can't see how $;n;$ is related to $;j;$ : is it the same $;n;$ for all $;j$'s orwhat?
    $endgroup$
    – Timbuc
    Jan 13 '15 at 11:52










  • $begingroup$
    Check the Legendre DE; $n$, is some parameter, say $1$. You might remember $P_n(x)$, as the Legendre polynomials!
    $endgroup$
    – sbp
    Jan 13 '15 at 12:02












  • $begingroup$
    So $;n;$ is the same for each and every $;j;$ , right? I'm not acquainted with Legendre's DE.
    $endgroup$
    – Timbuc
    Jan 13 '15 at 12:29
















1












$begingroup$


How to show that the Legendre Series solution $y_{even}$ and $y_{odd}$, diverges as $x = pm1 $.



$y_{even} = sum_{j=0,2,ldots}^infty a_jx^j$, where $a_{j+2}=frac{j(j+1)-n(n+1)}{(j+1)(j+2)}a_j$.



$y_{odd}=sum_{j=1,3,ldots}^infty a_jx^j$, where $a_{j+2}=frac{(j+1)(j+2)-n(n+1)}{(j+2)(j+3)}a_j$.



My Work:



I have shown that for both the $y_{even}$, and the $y_{odd}$, solutions, that $lim |frac{a_{j+1}}{a_j}|$, as $j rightarrow infty$ is $1$.



I cannot find the next part? How to proceed?



P.S. This problem is from Arfken. Problem #8.3.1 (7th Ed.)




Update:
I have been thinking about this for a while, and I have come up with this. I am using the Gauss test.




I am taking the $y_{even}$ solution, and defining $alpha = left|frac{a_{2j}}{a_{2j+2}}right| = frac{(2j+1)(2j+2)}{(2j-n)(2j+n-1)}$.



Now after some manipulation, I get my $alpha$ to be,



$$alpha=1+frac1j+frac{n(n+1)(j+1)}{(4j^2+2j-n(n+1))j}$$



Noe according to the Gauss test, one has to check that my third term, viz., $frac{n(n+1)(j+1)}{(4j^2+2j-n(n+1))j}$, which, I should be able to manipulate to $frac{C_j}{j^r}$; for $lim_{jtoinfty}C_j$, should be finite, then only I can say that, the series does diverge for $xrightarrowpm1$.



Okay, thought for some more time, and I have a solution to this problem. Now I can manipulate the third term in $alpha$, which would lead me to,



$$frac{n(n+1)(1+frac1j)}{j^2 left(4+frac2j-frac{n(n+1)}{j^2} right) }$$



which I can identify straight as my $frac{c_j}{j^r}$ term in my Gauss test. So here $r=2$, and $c_j=frac{n(n+1)(1+frac1j)}{left(4+frac2j-frac{n(n+1)}{j^2} right) }$. And when I do take the $lim_{jtoinfty}c_j=frac{n(n+1)}4$, so it does remain bounded.



So now I can draw a conclusion about the convergence/divergence at $xrightarrowpm1$ for the Legendre ODE. Now my $h=1$, and $r(equiv2)>1$, and also $lim_{jtoinfty}=frac{n(n+1)}4$, so I can say with confirmation, that at $x=pm1$, the series diverges!



This completes the proof, I guess.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    How are those $;n;$ in the recursive formula for the coefficients related to $;j;$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Timbuc
    Jan 13 '15 at 11:36










  • $begingroup$
    @Timbuc: Its nothing but the $n(n+1)$ term in the Legendre Differential Equation.
    $endgroup$
    – sbp
    Jan 13 '15 at 11:46










  • $begingroup$
    still I can't see how $;n;$ is related to $;j;$ : is it the same $;n;$ for all $;j$'s orwhat?
    $endgroup$
    – Timbuc
    Jan 13 '15 at 11:52










  • $begingroup$
    Check the Legendre DE; $n$, is some parameter, say $1$. You might remember $P_n(x)$, as the Legendre polynomials!
    $endgroup$
    – sbp
    Jan 13 '15 at 12:02












  • $begingroup$
    So $;n;$ is the same for each and every $;j;$ , right? I'm not acquainted with Legendre's DE.
    $endgroup$
    – Timbuc
    Jan 13 '15 at 12:29














1












1








1





$begingroup$


How to show that the Legendre Series solution $y_{even}$ and $y_{odd}$, diverges as $x = pm1 $.



$y_{even} = sum_{j=0,2,ldots}^infty a_jx^j$, where $a_{j+2}=frac{j(j+1)-n(n+1)}{(j+1)(j+2)}a_j$.



$y_{odd}=sum_{j=1,3,ldots}^infty a_jx^j$, where $a_{j+2}=frac{(j+1)(j+2)-n(n+1)}{(j+2)(j+3)}a_j$.



My Work:



I have shown that for both the $y_{even}$, and the $y_{odd}$, solutions, that $lim |frac{a_{j+1}}{a_j}|$, as $j rightarrow infty$ is $1$.



I cannot find the next part? How to proceed?



P.S. This problem is from Arfken. Problem #8.3.1 (7th Ed.)




Update:
I have been thinking about this for a while, and I have come up with this. I am using the Gauss test.




I am taking the $y_{even}$ solution, and defining $alpha = left|frac{a_{2j}}{a_{2j+2}}right| = frac{(2j+1)(2j+2)}{(2j-n)(2j+n-1)}$.



Now after some manipulation, I get my $alpha$ to be,



$$alpha=1+frac1j+frac{n(n+1)(j+1)}{(4j^2+2j-n(n+1))j}$$



Noe according to the Gauss test, one has to check that my third term, viz., $frac{n(n+1)(j+1)}{(4j^2+2j-n(n+1))j}$, which, I should be able to manipulate to $frac{C_j}{j^r}$; for $lim_{jtoinfty}C_j$, should be finite, then only I can say that, the series does diverge for $xrightarrowpm1$.



Okay, thought for some more time, and I have a solution to this problem. Now I can manipulate the third term in $alpha$, which would lead me to,



$$frac{n(n+1)(1+frac1j)}{j^2 left(4+frac2j-frac{n(n+1)}{j^2} right) }$$



which I can identify straight as my $frac{c_j}{j^r}$ term in my Gauss test. So here $r=2$, and $c_j=frac{n(n+1)(1+frac1j)}{left(4+frac2j-frac{n(n+1)}{j^2} right) }$. And when I do take the $lim_{jtoinfty}c_j=frac{n(n+1)}4$, so it does remain bounded.



So now I can draw a conclusion about the convergence/divergence at $xrightarrowpm1$ for the Legendre ODE. Now my $h=1$, and $r(equiv2)>1$, and also $lim_{jtoinfty}=frac{n(n+1)}4$, so I can say with confirmation, that at $x=pm1$, the series diverges!



This completes the proof, I guess.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




How to show that the Legendre Series solution $y_{even}$ and $y_{odd}$, diverges as $x = pm1 $.



$y_{even} = sum_{j=0,2,ldots}^infty a_jx^j$, where $a_{j+2}=frac{j(j+1)-n(n+1)}{(j+1)(j+2)}a_j$.



$y_{odd}=sum_{j=1,3,ldots}^infty a_jx^j$, where $a_{j+2}=frac{(j+1)(j+2)-n(n+1)}{(j+2)(j+3)}a_j$.



My Work:



I have shown that for both the $y_{even}$, and the $y_{odd}$, solutions, that $lim |frac{a_{j+1}}{a_j}|$, as $j rightarrow infty$ is $1$.



I cannot find the next part? How to proceed?



P.S. This problem is from Arfken. Problem #8.3.1 (7th Ed.)




Update:
I have been thinking about this for a while, and I have come up with this. I am using the Gauss test.




I am taking the $y_{even}$ solution, and defining $alpha = left|frac{a_{2j}}{a_{2j+2}}right| = frac{(2j+1)(2j+2)}{(2j-n)(2j+n-1)}$.



Now after some manipulation, I get my $alpha$ to be,



$$alpha=1+frac1j+frac{n(n+1)(j+1)}{(4j^2+2j-n(n+1))j}$$



Noe according to the Gauss test, one has to check that my third term, viz., $frac{n(n+1)(j+1)}{(4j^2+2j-n(n+1))j}$, which, I should be able to manipulate to $frac{C_j}{j^r}$; for $lim_{jtoinfty}C_j$, should be finite, then only I can say that, the series does diverge for $xrightarrowpm1$.



Okay, thought for some more time, and I have a solution to this problem. Now I can manipulate the third term in $alpha$, which would lead me to,



$$frac{n(n+1)(1+frac1j)}{j^2 left(4+frac2j-frac{n(n+1)}{j^2} right) }$$



which I can identify straight as my $frac{c_j}{j^r}$ term in my Gauss test. So here $r=2$, and $c_j=frac{n(n+1)(1+frac1j)}{left(4+frac2j-frac{n(n+1)}{j^2} right) }$. And when I do take the $lim_{jtoinfty}c_j=frac{n(n+1)}4$, so it does remain bounded.



So now I can draw a conclusion about the convergence/divergence at $xrightarrowpm1$ for the Legendre ODE. Now my $h=1$, and $r(equiv2)>1$, and also $lim_{jtoinfty}=frac{n(n+1)}4$, so I can say with confirmation, that at $x=pm1$, the series diverges!



This completes the proof, I guess.







ordinary-differential-equations recurrence-relations






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 14 '15 at 19:51







sbp

















asked Jan 13 '15 at 5:16









sbpsbp

22119




22119












  • $begingroup$
    How are those $;n;$ in the recursive formula for the coefficients related to $;j;$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Timbuc
    Jan 13 '15 at 11:36










  • $begingroup$
    @Timbuc: Its nothing but the $n(n+1)$ term in the Legendre Differential Equation.
    $endgroup$
    – sbp
    Jan 13 '15 at 11:46










  • $begingroup$
    still I can't see how $;n;$ is related to $;j;$ : is it the same $;n;$ for all $;j$'s orwhat?
    $endgroup$
    – Timbuc
    Jan 13 '15 at 11:52










  • $begingroup$
    Check the Legendre DE; $n$, is some parameter, say $1$. You might remember $P_n(x)$, as the Legendre polynomials!
    $endgroup$
    – sbp
    Jan 13 '15 at 12:02












  • $begingroup$
    So $;n;$ is the same for each and every $;j;$ , right? I'm not acquainted with Legendre's DE.
    $endgroup$
    – Timbuc
    Jan 13 '15 at 12:29


















  • $begingroup$
    How are those $;n;$ in the recursive formula for the coefficients related to $;j;$ ?
    $endgroup$
    – Timbuc
    Jan 13 '15 at 11:36










  • $begingroup$
    @Timbuc: Its nothing but the $n(n+1)$ term in the Legendre Differential Equation.
    $endgroup$
    – sbp
    Jan 13 '15 at 11:46










  • $begingroup$
    still I can't see how $;n;$ is related to $;j;$ : is it the same $;n;$ for all $;j$'s orwhat?
    $endgroup$
    – Timbuc
    Jan 13 '15 at 11:52










  • $begingroup$
    Check the Legendre DE; $n$, is some parameter, say $1$. You might remember $P_n(x)$, as the Legendre polynomials!
    $endgroup$
    – sbp
    Jan 13 '15 at 12:02












  • $begingroup$
    So $;n;$ is the same for each and every $;j;$ , right? I'm not acquainted with Legendre's DE.
    $endgroup$
    – Timbuc
    Jan 13 '15 at 12:29
















$begingroup$
How are those $;n;$ in the recursive formula for the coefficients related to $;j;$ ?
$endgroup$
– Timbuc
Jan 13 '15 at 11:36




$begingroup$
How are those $;n;$ in the recursive formula for the coefficients related to $;j;$ ?
$endgroup$
– Timbuc
Jan 13 '15 at 11:36












$begingroup$
@Timbuc: Its nothing but the $n(n+1)$ term in the Legendre Differential Equation.
$endgroup$
– sbp
Jan 13 '15 at 11:46




$begingroup$
@Timbuc: Its nothing but the $n(n+1)$ term in the Legendre Differential Equation.
$endgroup$
– sbp
Jan 13 '15 at 11:46












$begingroup$
still I can't see how $;n;$ is related to $;j;$ : is it the same $;n;$ for all $;j$'s orwhat?
$endgroup$
– Timbuc
Jan 13 '15 at 11:52




$begingroup$
still I can't see how $;n;$ is related to $;j;$ : is it the same $;n;$ for all $;j$'s orwhat?
$endgroup$
– Timbuc
Jan 13 '15 at 11:52












$begingroup$
Check the Legendre DE; $n$, is some parameter, say $1$. You might remember $P_n(x)$, as the Legendre polynomials!
$endgroup$
– sbp
Jan 13 '15 at 12:02






$begingroup$
Check the Legendre DE; $n$, is some parameter, say $1$. You might remember $P_n(x)$, as the Legendre polynomials!
$endgroup$
– sbp
Jan 13 '15 at 12:02














$begingroup$
So $;n;$ is the same for each and every $;j;$ , right? I'm not acquainted with Legendre's DE.
$endgroup$
– Timbuc
Jan 13 '15 at 12:29




$begingroup$
So $;n;$ is the same for each and every $;j;$ , right? I'm not acquainted with Legendre's DE.
$endgroup$
– Timbuc
Jan 13 '15 at 12:29










1 Answer
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$begingroup$

See About the Legendre differential equation where the recurrence relations above are derived from entering $y=sum_{j=0}^infty a_jx^j$ into the Legendre differential equation.



Solutions to the equation are $y=P_n(x)$ which is a polynomial of degree $n$, and $y=Q_n(x)$, which is constructed of polynomials and logarithms.



$P_n(1)=1$ and $P_n(-1)=pm 1$ so in these cases the series does not diverge.



But indeed the $Q_n(x)$ series diverges for $x=pm 1$.



For example: $Q_0(x)=frac{1}{2} ln(frac{1+x}{1-x})$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













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    $begingroup$

    See About the Legendre differential equation where the recurrence relations above are derived from entering $y=sum_{j=0}^infty a_jx^j$ into the Legendre differential equation.



    Solutions to the equation are $y=P_n(x)$ which is a polynomial of degree $n$, and $y=Q_n(x)$, which is constructed of polynomials and logarithms.



    $P_n(1)=1$ and $P_n(-1)=pm 1$ so in these cases the series does not diverge.



    But indeed the $Q_n(x)$ series diverges for $x=pm 1$.



    For example: $Q_0(x)=frac{1}{2} ln(frac{1+x}{1-x})$






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      0












      $begingroup$

      See About the Legendre differential equation where the recurrence relations above are derived from entering $y=sum_{j=0}^infty a_jx^j$ into the Legendre differential equation.



      Solutions to the equation are $y=P_n(x)$ which is a polynomial of degree $n$, and $y=Q_n(x)$, which is constructed of polynomials and logarithms.



      $P_n(1)=1$ and $P_n(-1)=pm 1$ so in these cases the series does not diverge.



      But indeed the $Q_n(x)$ series diverges for $x=pm 1$.



      For example: $Q_0(x)=frac{1}{2} ln(frac{1+x}{1-x})$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        0












        0








        0





        $begingroup$

        See About the Legendre differential equation where the recurrence relations above are derived from entering $y=sum_{j=0}^infty a_jx^j$ into the Legendre differential equation.



        Solutions to the equation are $y=P_n(x)$ which is a polynomial of degree $n$, and $y=Q_n(x)$, which is constructed of polynomials and logarithms.



        $P_n(1)=1$ and $P_n(-1)=pm 1$ so in these cases the series does not diverge.



        But indeed the $Q_n(x)$ series diverges for $x=pm 1$.



        For example: $Q_0(x)=frac{1}{2} ln(frac{1+x}{1-x})$






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        See About the Legendre differential equation where the recurrence relations above are derived from entering $y=sum_{j=0}^infty a_jx^j$ into the Legendre differential equation.



        Solutions to the equation are $y=P_n(x)$ which is a polynomial of degree $n$, and $y=Q_n(x)$, which is constructed of polynomials and logarithms.



        $P_n(1)=1$ and $P_n(-1)=pm 1$ so in these cases the series does not diverge.



        But indeed the $Q_n(x)$ series diverges for $x=pm 1$.



        For example: $Q_0(x)=frac{1}{2} ln(frac{1+x}{1-x})$







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Apr 13 '17 at 12:21









        Community

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        answered Jan 17 '15 at 20:27









        Maestro13Maestro13

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