multiplying two normal subgroups is still normal?












3












$begingroup$


Let $G_i triangleleft G_{i+1}$ both subgroups of $G$. Let $N$ be a normal group.



Does $G_iN triangleleft G_{i+1}N$?



Does $(G_iN/N) triangleleft (G_{i+1}N/N)$?



I know that $q:Glongrightarrow G/N$ preserves normality. Hence if $G_iN triangleleft G_{i+1}N$ then their quotients would be normal.



I have tried by considering an element in $gin G_iN$ and $hin G_{i+1}N$ and trying to find out if $ghg^{-1}in G_iN$. But I am a bit confused of those multilpication groups. And that is why I can not play with this expression.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What do you know? What have you tried?
    $endgroup$
    – verret
    Jan 22 at 20:55










  • $begingroup$
    Edited. @verret
    $endgroup$
    – idriskameni
    Jan 22 at 20:58










  • $begingroup$
    Have you heard of the second/third isomorphism theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Jan 22 at 21:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes I do. I have been playing with that expression too. $G_i/(G_icap H)triangleleft G_{i+1}/(G_{i+1}cap H)$. But still nothing.
    $endgroup$
    – idriskameni
    Jan 22 at 21:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I have tried a lot of things. Is not that I haven't worked on it. Don't you think so. I mean, it is easy to come and coment these things.
    $endgroup$
    – idriskameni
    Jan 22 at 21:02


















3












$begingroup$


Let $G_i triangleleft G_{i+1}$ both subgroups of $G$. Let $N$ be a normal group.



Does $G_iN triangleleft G_{i+1}N$?



Does $(G_iN/N) triangleleft (G_{i+1}N/N)$?



I know that $q:Glongrightarrow G/N$ preserves normality. Hence if $G_iN triangleleft G_{i+1}N$ then their quotients would be normal.



I have tried by considering an element in $gin G_iN$ and $hin G_{i+1}N$ and trying to find out if $ghg^{-1}in G_iN$. But I am a bit confused of those multilpication groups. And that is why I can not play with this expression.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    What do you know? What have you tried?
    $endgroup$
    – verret
    Jan 22 at 20:55










  • $begingroup$
    Edited. @verret
    $endgroup$
    – idriskameni
    Jan 22 at 20:58










  • $begingroup$
    Have you heard of the second/third isomorphism theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Jan 22 at 21:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes I do. I have been playing with that expression too. $G_i/(G_icap H)triangleleft G_{i+1}/(G_{i+1}cap H)$. But still nothing.
    $endgroup$
    – idriskameni
    Jan 22 at 21:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I have tried a lot of things. Is not that I haven't worked on it. Don't you think so. I mean, it is easy to come and coment these things.
    $endgroup$
    – idriskameni
    Jan 22 at 21:02
















3












3








3





$begingroup$


Let $G_i triangleleft G_{i+1}$ both subgroups of $G$. Let $N$ be a normal group.



Does $G_iN triangleleft G_{i+1}N$?



Does $(G_iN/N) triangleleft (G_{i+1}N/N)$?



I know that $q:Glongrightarrow G/N$ preserves normality. Hence if $G_iN triangleleft G_{i+1}N$ then their quotients would be normal.



I have tried by considering an element in $gin G_iN$ and $hin G_{i+1}N$ and trying to find out if $ghg^{-1}in G_iN$. But I am a bit confused of those multilpication groups. And that is why I can not play with this expression.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Let $G_i triangleleft G_{i+1}$ both subgroups of $G$. Let $N$ be a normal group.



Does $G_iN triangleleft G_{i+1}N$?



Does $(G_iN/N) triangleleft (G_{i+1}N/N)$?



I know that $q:Glongrightarrow G/N$ preserves normality. Hence if $G_iN triangleleft G_{i+1}N$ then their quotients would be normal.



I have tried by considering an element in $gin G_iN$ and $hin G_{i+1}N$ and trying to find out if $ghg^{-1}in G_iN$. But I am a bit confused of those multilpication groups. And that is why I can not play with this expression.







group-theory normal-subgroups






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 22 at 20:59









Ethan Bolker

45k553120




45k553120










asked Jan 22 at 20:50









idriskameniidriskameni

759321




759321












  • $begingroup$
    What do you know? What have you tried?
    $endgroup$
    – verret
    Jan 22 at 20:55










  • $begingroup$
    Edited. @verret
    $endgroup$
    – idriskameni
    Jan 22 at 20:58










  • $begingroup$
    Have you heard of the second/third isomorphism theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Jan 22 at 21:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes I do. I have been playing with that expression too. $G_i/(G_icap H)triangleleft G_{i+1}/(G_{i+1}cap H)$. But still nothing.
    $endgroup$
    – idriskameni
    Jan 22 at 21:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I have tried a lot of things. Is not that I haven't worked on it. Don't you think so. I mean, it is easy to come and coment these things.
    $endgroup$
    – idriskameni
    Jan 22 at 21:02




















  • $begingroup$
    What do you know? What have you tried?
    $endgroup$
    – verret
    Jan 22 at 20:55










  • $begingroup$
    Edited. @verret
    $endgroup$
    – idriskameni
    Jan 22 at 20:58










  • $begingroup$
    Have you heard of the second/third isomorphism theorem?
    $endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Jan 22 at 21:00






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Yes I do. I have been playing with that expression too. $G_i/(G_icap H)triangleleft G_{i+1}/(G_{i+1}cap H)$. But still nothing.
    $endgroup$
    – idriskameni
    Jan 22 at 21:02






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    I have tried a lot of things. Is not that I haven't worked on it. Don't you think so. I mean, it is easy to come and coment these things.
    $endgroup$
    – idriskameni
    Jan 22 at 21:02


















$begingroup$
What do you know? What have you tried?
$endgroup$
– verret
Jan 22 at 20:55




$begingroup$
What do you know? What have you tried?
$endgroup$
– verret
Jan 22 at 20:55












$begingroup$
Edited. @verret
$endgroup$
– idriskameni
Jan 22 at 20:58




$begingroup$
Edited. @verret
$endgroup$
– idriskameni
Jan 22 at 20:58












$begingroup$
Have you heard of the second/third isomorphism theorem?
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Jan 22 at 21:00




$begingroup$
Have you heard of the second/third isomorphism theorem?
$endgroup$
– DonAntonio
Jan 22 at 21:00




1




1




$begingroup$
Yes I do. I have been playing with that expression too. $G_i/(G_icap H)triangleleft G_{i+1}/(G_{i+1}cap H)$. But still nothing.
$endgroup$
– idriskameni
Jan 22 at 21:02




$begingroup$
Yes I do. I have been playing with that expression too. $G_i/(G_icap H)triangleleft G_{i+1}/(G_{i+1}cap H)$. But still nothing.
$endgroup$
– idriskameni
Jan 22 at 21:02




1




1




$begingroup$
I have tried a lot of things. Is not that I haven't worked on it. Don't you think so. I mean, it is easy to come and coment these things.
$endgroup$
– idriskameni
Jan 22 at 21:02






$begingroup$
I have tried a lot of things. Is not that I haven't worked on it. Don't you think so. I mean, it is easy to come and coment these things.
$endgroup$
– idriskameni
Jan 22 at 21:02












2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















2












$begingroup$

I want to change the notation to make stuff clearer: Suppose $Hlhd K< G$, and let $Nlhd G$ (so really $H=G_i$ and $K=G_{i+1}$). Then a proof that $HNlhd KN$ by considering a conjugator is:



Suppose $kin K$, $hin H$, and $n, n'in N$. Firstly, note that
$$n^{-1}k^{-1}(hn')kn=(n^{-1}k^{-1}hkn)cdot (n^{-1}k^{-1}n'kn)$$
Clearly $(n^{-1}k^{-1}n'kn)in N$, while $(n^{-1}k^{-1}hkn)in HN$ by the following:
$$begin{align*}
k^{-1}hk&in H\
Rightarrow k^{-1}hkcdot (k^{-1}hk)^{-1}n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)&in HN\
n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)&in HN\
n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)n&in HN
end{align*}
$$

The result follows.






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$





















    -1












    $begingroup$

    Hint:



    The first one should be almost immediate, and for the second one:



    $$G_iN/Ncong G_i/(G_icap N);,;;; G_{i+1}/(G_{i+1}cap N)cong G_{i+1}N/N$$






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$









    • 2




      $begingroup$
      I am afraid that I cannot see how this helps solve the problem. The second one follows directly from the first which, as you say. is straightforward.
      $endgroup$
      – Derek Holt
      Jan 23 at 8:47












    • $begingroup$
      @DerekHolt That isomorphism helps, imo. to see that (1) those quotient groups are well-defined and (2) one is normal in the other. I also think both are more or less straightforward (though this usually depends on the beholder...). Did I miss anything?
      $endgroup$
      – DonAntonio
      Jan 23 at 8:55










    • $begingroup$
      I don't really see how the isomorphisms help prove that one is normal in the other. (The downvote is not from me.)
      $endgroup$
      – Derek Holt
      Jan 23 at 9:11











    Your Answer





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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes









    2












    $begingroup$

    I want to change the notation to make stuff clearer: Suppose $Hlhd K< G$, and let $Nlhd G$ (so really $H=G_i$ and $K=G_{i+1}$). Then a proof that $HNlhd KN$ by considering a conjugator is:



    Suppose $kin K$, $hin H$, and $n, n'in N$. Firstly, note that
    $$n^{-1}k^{-1}(hn')kn=(n^{-1}k^{-1}hkn)cdot (n^{-1}k^{-1}n'kn)$$
    Clearly $(n^{-1}k^{-1}n'kn)in N$, while $(n^{-1}k^{-1}hkn)in HN$ by the following:
    $$begin{align*}
    k^{-1}hk&in H\
    Rightarrow k^{-1}hkcdot (k^{-1}hk)^{-1}n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)&in HN\
    n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)&in HN\
    n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)n&in HN
    end{align*}
    $$

    The result follows.






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$


















      2












      $begingroup$

      I want to change the notation to make stuff clearer: Suppose $Hlhd K< G$, and let $Nlhd G$ (so really $H=G_i$ and $K=G_{i+1}$). Then a proof that $HNlhd KN$ by considering a conjugator is:



      Suppose $kin K$, $hin H$, and $n, n'in N$. Firstly, note that
      $$n^{-1}k^{-1}(hn')kn=(n^{-1}k^{-1}hkn)cdot (n^{-1}k^{-1}n'kn)$$
      Clearly $(n^{-1}k^{-1}n'kn)in N$, while $(n^{-1}k^{-1}hkn)in HN$ by the following:
      $$begin{align*}
      k^{-1}hk&in H\
      Rightarrow k^{-1}hkcdot (k^{-1}hk)^{-1}n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)&in HN\
      n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)&in HN\
      n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)n&in HN
      end{align*}
      $$

      The result follows.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















        2












        2








        2





        $begingroup$

        I want to change the notation to make stuff clearer: Suppose $Hlhd K< G$, and let $Nlhd G$ (so really $H=G_i$ and $K=G_{i+1}$). Then a proof that $HNlhd KN$ by considering a conjugator is:



        Suppose $kin K$, $hin H$, and $n, n'in N$. Firstly, note that
        $$n^{-1}k^{-1}(hn')kn=(n^{-1}k^{-1}hkn)cdot (n^{-1}k^{-1}n'kn)$$
        Clearly $(n^{-1}k^{-1}n'kn)in N$, while $(n^{-1}k^{-1}hkn)in HN$ by the following:
        $$begin{align*}
        k^{-1}hk&in H\
        Rightarrow k^{-1}hkcdot (k^{-1}hk)^{-1}n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)&in HN\
        n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)&in HN\
        n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)n&in HN
        end{align*}
        $$

        The result follows.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        I want to change the notation to make stuff clearer: Suppose $Hlhd K< G$, and let $Nlhd G$ (so really $H=G_i$ and $K=G_{i+1}$). Then a proof that $HNlhd KN$ by considering a conjugator is:



        Suppose $kin K$, $hin H$, and $n, n'in N$. Firstly, note that
        $$n^{-1}k^{-1}(hn')kn=(n^{-1}k^{-1}hkn)cdot (n^{-1}k^{-1}n'kn)$$
        Clearly $(n^{-1}k^{-1}n'kn)in N$, while $(n^{-1}k^{-1}hkn)in HN$ by the following:
        $$begin{align*}
        k^{-1}hk&in H\
        Rightarrow k^{-1}hkcdot (k^{-1}hk)^{-1}n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)&in HN\
        n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)&in HN\
        n^{-1}(k^{-1}hk)n&in HN
        end{align*}
        $$

        The result follows.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Jan 23 at 9:06

























        answered Jan 23 at 8:49









        user1729user1729

        17.4k64193




        17.4k64193























            -1












            $begingroup$

            Hint:



            The first one should be almost immediate, and for the second one:



            $$G_iN/Ncong G_i/(G_icap N);,;;; G_{i+1}/(G_{i+1}cap N)cong G_{i+1}N/N$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              I am afraid that I cannot see how this helps solve the problem. The second one follows directly from the first which, as you say. is straightforward.
              $endgroup$
              – Derek Holt
              Jan 23 at 8:47












            • $begingroup$
              @DerekHolt That isomorphism helps, imo. to see that (1) those quotient groups are well-defined and (2) one is normal in the other. I also think both are more or less straightforward (though this usually depends on the beholder...). Did I miss anything?
              $endgroup$
              – DonAntonio
              Jan 23 at 8:55










            • $begingroup$
              I don't really see how the isomorphisms help prove that one is normal in the other. (The downvote is not from me.)
              $endgroup$
              – Derek Holt
              Jan 23 at 9:11
















            -1












            $begingroup$

            Hint:



            The first one should be almost immediate, and for the second one:



            $$G_iN/Ncong G_i/(G_icap N);,;;; G_{i+1}/(G_{i+1}cap N)cong G_{i+1}N/N$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$









            • 2




              $begingroup$
              I am afraid that I cannot see how this helps solve the problem. The second one follows directly from the first which, as you say. is straightforward.
              $endgroup$
              – Derek Holt
              Jan 23 at 8:47












            • $begingroup$
              @DerekHolt That isomorphism helps, imo. to see that (1) those quotient groups are well-defined and (2) one is normal in the other. I also think both are more or less straightforward (though this usually depends on the beholder...). Did I miss anything?
              $endgroup$
              – DonAntonio
              Jan 23 at 8:55










            • $begingroup$
              I don't really see how the isomorphisms help prove that one is normal in the other. (The downvote is not from me.)
              $endgroup$
              – Derek Holt
              Jan 23 at 9:11














            -1












            -1








            -1





            $begingroup$

            Hint:



            The first one should be almost immediate, and for the second one:



            $$G_iN/Ncong G_i/(G_icap N);,;;; G_{i+1}/(G_{i+1}cap N)cong G_{i+1}N/N$$






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Hint:



            The first one should be almost immediate, and for the second one:



            $$G_iN/Ncong G_i/(G_icap N);,;;; G_{i+1}/(G_{i+1}cap N)cong G_{i+1}N/N$$







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered Jan 23 at 8:30









            DonAntonioDonAntonio

            179k1494233




            179k1494233








            • 2




              $begingroup$
              I am afraid that I cannot see how this helps solve the problem. The second one follows directly from the first which, as you say. is straightforward.
              $endgroup$
              – Derek Holt
              Jan 23 at 8:47












            • $begingroup$
              @DerekHolt That isomorphism helps, imo. to see that (1) those quotient groups are well-defined and (2) one is normal in the other. I also think both are more or less straightforward (though this usually depends on the beholder...). Did I miss anything?
              $endgroup$
              – DonAntonio
              Jan 23 at 8:55










            • $begingroup$
              I don't really see how the isomorphisms help prove that one is normal in the other. (The downvote is not from me.)
              $endgroup$
              – Derek Holt
              Jan 23 at 9:11














            • 2




              $begingroup$
              I am afraid that I cannot see how this helps solve the problem. The second one follows directly from the first which, as you say. is straightforward.
              $endgroup$
              – Derek Holt
              Jan 23 at 8:47












            • $begingroup$
              @DerekHolt That isomorphism helps, imo. to see that (1) those quotient groups are well-defined and (2) one is normal in the other. I also think both are more or less straightforward (though this usually depends on the beholder...). Did I miss anything?
              $endgroup$
              – DonAntonio
              Jan 23 at 8:55










            • $begingroup$
              I don't really see how the isomorphisms help prove that one is normal in the other. (The downvote is not from me.)
              $endgroup$
              – Derek Holt
              Jan 23 at 9:11








            2




            2




            $begingroup$
            I am afraid that I cannot see how this helps solve the problem. The second one follows directly from the first which, as you say. is straightforward.
            $endgroup$
            – Derek Holt
            Jan 23 at 8:47






            $begingroup$
            I am afraid that I cannot see how this helps solve the problem. The second one follows directly from the first which, as you say. is straightforward.
            $endgroup$
            – Derek Holt
            Jan 23 at 8:47














            $begingroup$
            @DerekHolt That isomorphism helps, imo. to see that (1) those quotient groups are well-defined and (2) one is normal in the other. I also think both are more or less straightforward (though this usually depends on the beholder...). Did I miss anything?
            $endgroup$
            – DonAntonio
            Jan 23 at 8:55




            $begingroup$
            @DerekHolt That isomorphism helps, imo. to see that (1) those quotient groups are well-defined and (2) one is normal in the other. I also think both are more or less straightforward (though this usually depends on the beholder...). Did I miss anything?
            $endgroup$
            – DonAntonio
            Jan 23 at 8:55












            $begingroup$
            I don't really see how the isomorphisms help prove that one is normal in the other. (The downvote is not from me.)
            $endgroup$
            – Derek Holt
            Jan 23 at 9:11




            $begingroup$
            I don't really see how the isomorphisms help prove that one is normal in the other. (The downvote is not from me.)
            $endgroup$
            – Derek Holt
            Jan 23 at 9:11


















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