Logarithm of martingale to the power of a Poisson random variable is a martingale












3












$begingroup$


Let $(Z_n)_n$ be independently Poisson(1) distributed random variables.

Let $X_1=Z_1+1$ and
$$X_n=(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}$$
for $n>1$ and define $F_n=sigma(Z_1,...,Z_n)$.




How do I show that

a) $X_n$ is a $F_n$-martingale

b) its limit is $1$ almost surely

c) it is not bounded in $L^p$ for any $p>1$?




For a) we need to show that $mathbb{E}|X_n|<infty$, but how do I write $mathbb{E}|(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|$?

Further we want $mathbb{E}[X_n|f_{n-1}]=X_{n-1}$, but again I don't know what to do with the power of $Z_n$?



EDIT:
Based on Davide Giraudo's reply, I write for the martingale condition
$$begin{align*}
mathbb{E}[(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|F_n]&=mathbb{E}[sumlimits_{kinmathbb{N}}frac{1}{ecdot k!}(log X_{n-1}+1)^k|F_n]\
&=e^{-1}mathbb{E}[exp(log X_{n-1}+1)|F_n]\
&=mathbb{E}[X_{n-1}|F_{n-1}]\
&=X_{n-1}
end{align*}$$










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$endgroup$

















    3












    $begingroup$


    Let $(Z_n)_n$ be independently Poisson(1) distributed random variables.

    Let $X_1=Z_1+1$ and
    $$X_n=(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}$$
    for $n>1$ and define $F_n=sigma(Z_1,...,Z_n)$.




    How do I show that

    a) $X_n$ is a $F_n$-martingale

    b) its limit is $1$ almost surely

    c) it is not bounded in $L^p$ for any $p>1$?




    For a) we need to show that $mathbb{E}|X_n|<infty$, but how do I write $mathbb{E}|(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|$?

    Further we want $mathbb{E}[X_n|f_{n-1}]=X_{n-1}$, but again I don't know what to do with the power of $Z_n$?



    EDIT:
    Based on Davide Giraudo's reply, I write for the martingale condition
    $$begin{align*}
    mathbb{E}[(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|F_n]&=mathbb{E}[sumlimits_{kinmathbb{N}}frac{1}{ecdot k!}(log X_{n-1}+1)^k|F_n]\
    &=e^{-1}mathbb{E}[exp(log X_{n-1}+1)|F_n]\
    &=mathbb{E}[X_{n-1}|F_{n-1}]\
    &=X_{n-1}
    end{align*}$$










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      3












      3








      3





      $begingroup$


      Let $(Z_n)_n$ be independently Poisson(1) distributed random variables.

      Let $X_1=Z_1+1$ and
      $$X_n=(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}$$
      for $n>1$ and define $F_n=sigma(Z_1,...,Z_n)$.




      How do I show that

      a) $X_n$ is a $F_n$-martingale

      b) its limit is $1$ almost surely

      c) it is not bounded in $L^p$ for any $p>1$?




      For a) we need to show that $mathbb{E}|X_n|<infty$, but how do I write $mathbb{E}|(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|$?

      Further we want $mathbb{E}[X_n|f_{n-1}]=X_{n-1}$, but again I don't know what to do with the power of $Z_n$?



      EDIT:
      Based on Davide Giraudo's reply, I write for the martingale condition
      $$begin{align*}
      mathbb{E}[(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|F_n]&=mathbb{E}[sumlimits_{kinmathbb{N}}frac{1}{ecdot k!}(log X_{n-1}+1)^k|F_n]\
      &=e^{-1}mathbb{E}[exp(log X_{n-1}+1)|F_n]\
      &=mathbb{E}[X_{n-1}|F_{n-1}]\
      &=X_{n-1}
      end{align*}$$










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      Let $(Z_n)_n$ be independently Poisson(1) distributed random variables.

      Let $X_1=Z_1+1$ and
      $$X_n=(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}$$
      for $n>1$ and define $F_n=sigma(Z_1,...,Z_n)$.




      How do I show that

      a) $X_n$ is a $F_n$-martingale

      b) its limit is $1$ almost surely

      c) it is not bounded in $L^p$ for any $p>1$?




      For a) we need to show that $mathbb{E}|X_n|<infty$, but how do I write $mathbb{E}|(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|$?

      Further we want $mathbb{E}[X_n|f_{n-1}]=X_{n-1}$, but again I don't know what to do with the power of $Z_n$?



      EDIT:
      Based on Davide Giraudo's reply, I write for the martingale condition
      $$begin{align*}
      mathbb{E}[(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|F_n]&=mathbb{E}[sumlimits_{kinmathbb{N}}frac{1}{ecdot k!}(log X_{n-1}+1)^k|F_n]\
      &=e^{-1}mathbb{E}[exp(log X_{n-1}+1)|F_n]\
      &=mathbb{E}[X_{n-1}|F_{n-1}]\
      &=X_{n-1}
      end{align*}$$







      convergence martingales






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      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 28 at 12:12







      Joachim Doyle

















      asked Jan 28 at 11:18









      Joachim DoyleJoachim Doyle

      818




      818






















          2 Answers
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          2












          $begingroup$


          • Part (a):

            As @Davide pointed out, we can see $X_{n-1}in F_{n-1} implies X_nin F_n$ easily. By induction, $(X_n,F_n)$ is an adapted process. Also note that $X_{n-1}ge 1 implies X_nge 1$, hence $X_nge 1$ a.s. We find that $Bbb EX_1 =2<infty$ as a base case and
            $$begin{eqnarray}
            Bbb Eleft[X_{n+1}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|F_nright] &=&Bbb Eleft[left(log X_n+1right)^{Z_{n+1}}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|X_nright]\&= &sum_{k=0}^N frac{e^{-1}left(log X_n +1right)^k}{k!}\
            &stackrel{Ntoinfty}longrightarrow&e^{-1}e^{log X_n +1}=X_n.
            end{eqnarray}$$
            By induction and monotone convergence theorem, it follows $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]$ is integrable and $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]= X_n$


          • Part (b):



          First note that since $(X_n, F_n)$ is a $L^1$-bounded martingale, there exists
          $$
          X =lim_{ntoinfty} X_nin [1,infty) quadtext{a.s.}
          $$
          by martingale convergence theorem. Let $A ={X>1}$.
          By taking logarithms, we find that
          $$
          log X_{n} =Z_n log left(log X_{n-1}+1right).
          $$
          From this we obtain
          $$
          Z_n stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow frac{log X}{log left(log X+1right)} quadtext{a.s. on } A.
          $$
          On the other hand, by strong law of large numbers
          $$
          frac{Z_1+Z_2+cdots +Z_n}{n}stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow 1 quadtext{a.s.}
          $$
          Since the Cesaro limit is equal to the limit if both exist, we have
          $$
          X=log X+1 quadtext{a.s. on } A.
          $$
          Since $log t < t-1$ for all $tne 1$, this is impossible on $A={X> 1}$. Hence $Asubset A^c$ a.s. and $Bbb P(A)=0$ as desired.




          • Part (c):



          Note that if $(X_n,F_n)$ is $L^p$-bounded for $p>1$, martingale convergence theorem implies that
          $$
          X_n to X=1quadtext{both a.s. and in} L^p.
          $$
          But this implies that
          $$
          X_1 =Bbb E[X_n |F_1] stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow Bbb E [X|F_1] =1 text{ in } L^p
          $$
          leading to the contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Why is $X_n$ bounded in $L^1$?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:37










          • $begingroup$
            And could you explain why we have a contradiction in (c)?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:41










          • $begingroup$
            1. Since $X_n$ is non-negative and $X_n$ is a martingale. 2. Since $X_1=1+Z_1$ is not constant $1$. Is it convincing?
            $endgroup$
            – Song
            Jan 28 at 13:42












          • $begingroup$
            Ah, I see 1. now. Because of non-negative and martingale we have $mathbb{E}|X_n|=mathbb{E}(X_n)=mathbb{E}(X_1)=2$. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:55



















          3












          $begingroup$

          Observe that we can prove by induction that $X_n$ is $mathcal F_n$-measurable and that $X_ngeqslant 1$ almost surely. Since $Z_n$ is independent of $X_{n-1}$, it follows that
          $$mathbb Eleftlvert X_nrightrvert=mathbb Eleft[sum_{k=0}^{+infty}e^{-1}frac{1}{k!}left(1+log X_{n-1}right)^kright]=e^{-1}mathbb Eleft[ expleft(1+log X_{n-1}right) right]=mathbb Eleftlvert X_{n-1}rightrvert.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Could you take a look at my edit, would that be correct for the conditional expectation? Also how would I start for b) and c)?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 12:13











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          2 Answers
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          active

          oldest

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          2 Answers
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          active

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          active

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          active

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          2












          $begingroup$


          • Part (a):

            As @Davide pointed out, we can see $X_{n-1}in F_{n-1} implies X_nin F_n$ easily. By induction, $(X_n,F_n)$ is an adapted process. Also note that $X_{n-1}ge 1 implies X_nge 1$, hence $X_nge 1$ a.s. We find that $Bbb EX_1 =2<infty$ as a base case and
            $$begin{eqnarray}
            Bbb Eleft[X_{n+1}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|F_nright] &=&Bbb Eleft[left(log X_n+1right)^{Z_{n+1}}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|X_nright]\&= &sum_{k=0}^N frac{e^{-1}left(log X_n +1right)^k}{k!}\
            &stackrel{Ntoinfty}longrightarrow&e^{-1}e^{log X_n +1}=X_n.
            end{eqnarray}$$
            By induction and monotone convergence theorem, it follows $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]$ is integrable and $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]= X_n$


          • Part (b):



          First note that since $(X_n, F_n)$ is a $L^1$-bounded martingale, there exists
          $$
          X =lim_{ntoinfty} X_nin [1,infty) quadtext{a.s.}
          $$
          by martingale convergence theorem. Let $A ={X>1}$.
          By taking logarithms, we find that
          $$
          log X_{n} =Z_n log left(log X_{n-1}+1right).
          $$
          From this we obtain
          $$
          Z_n stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow frac{log X}{log left(log X+1right)} quadtext{a.s. on } A.
          $$
          On the other hand, by strong law of large numbers
          $$
          frac{Z_1+Z_2+cdots +Z_n}{n}stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow 1 quadtext{a.s.}
          $$
          Since the Cesaro limit is equal to the limit if both exist, we have
          $$
          X=log X+1 quadtext{a.s. on } A.
          $$
          Since $log t < t-1$ for all $tne 1$, this is impossible on $A={X> 1}$. Hence $Asubset A^c$ a.s. and $Bbb P(A)=0$ as desired.




          • Part (c):



          Note that if $(X_n,F_n)$ is $L^p$-bounded for $p>1$, martingale convergence theorem implies that
          $$
          X_n to X=1quadtext{both a.s. and in} L^p.
          $$
          But this implies that
          $$
          X_1 =Bbb E[X_n |F_1] stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow Bbb E [X|F_1] =1 text{ in } L^p
          $$
          leading to the contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Why is $X_n$ bounded in $L^1$?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:37










          • $begingroup$
            And could you explain why we have a contradiction in (c)?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:41










          • $begingroup$
            1. Since $X_n$ is non-negative and $X_n$ is a martingale. 2. Since $X_1=1+Z_1$ is not constant $1$. Is it convincing?
            $endgroup$
            – Song
            Jan 28 at 13:42












          • $begingroup$
            Ah, I see 1. now. Because of non-negative and martingale we have $mathbb{E}|X_n|=mathbb{E}(X_n)=mathbb{E}(X_1)=2$. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:55
















          2












          $begingroup$


          • Part (a):

            As @Davide pointed out, we can see $X_{n-1}in F_{n-1} implies X_nin F_n$ easily. By induction, $(X_n,F_n)$ is an adapted process. Also note that $X_{n-1}ge 1 implies X_nge 1$, hence $X_nge 1$ a.s. We find that $Bbb EX_1 =2<infty$ as a base case and
            $$begin{eqnarray}
            Bbb Eleft[X_{n+1}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|F_nright] &=&Bbb Eleft[left(log X_n+1right)^{Z_{n+1}}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|X_nright]\&= &sum_{k=0}^N frac{e^{-1}left(log X_n +1right)^k}{k!}\
            &stackrel{Ntoinfty}longrightarrow&e^{-1}e^{log X_n +1}=X_n.
            end{eqnarray}$$
            By induction and monotone convergence theorem, it follows $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]$ is integrable and $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]= X_n$


          • Part (b):



          First note that since $(X_n, F_n)$ is a $L^1$-bounded martingale, there exists
          $$
          X =lim_{ntoinfty} X_nin [1,infty) quadtext{a.s.}
          $$
          by martingale convergence theorem. Let $A ={X>1}$.
          By taking logarithms, we find that
          $$
          log X_{n} =Z_n log left(log X_{n-1}+1right).
          $$
          From this we obtain
          $$
          Z_n stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow frac{log X}{log left(log X+1right)} quadtext{a.s. on } A.
          $$
          On the other hand, by strong law of large numbers
          $$
          frac{Z_1+Z_2+cdots +Z_n}{n}stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow 1 quadtext{a.s.}
          $$
          Since the Cesaro limit is equal to the limit if both exist, we have
          $$
          X=log X+1 quadtext{a.s. on } A.
          $$
          Since $log t < t-1$ for all $tne 1$, this is impossible on $A={X> 1}$. Hence $Asubset A^c$ a.s. and $Bbb P(A)=0$ as desired.




          • Part (c):



          Note that if $(X_n,F_n)$ is $L^p$-bounded for $p>1$, martingale convergence theorem implies that
          $$
          X_n to X=1quadtext{both a.s. and in} L^p.
          $$
          But this implies that
          $$
          X_1 =Bbb E[X_n |F_1] stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow Bbb E [X|F_1] =1 text{ in } L^p
          $$
          leading to the contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Why is $X_n$ bounded in $L^1$?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:37










          • $begingroup$
            And could you explain why we have a contradiction in (c)?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:41










          • $begingroup$
            1. Since $X_n$ is non-negative and $X_n$ is a martingale. 2. Since $X_1=1+Z_1$ is not constant $1$. Is it convincing?
            $endgroup$
            – Song
            Jan 28 at 13:42












          • $begingroup$
            Ah, I see 1. now. Because of non-negative and martingale we have $mathbb{E}|X_n|=mathbb{E}(X_n)=mathbb{E}(X_1)=2$. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:55














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$


          • Part (a):

            As @Davide pointed out, we can see $X_{n-1}in F_{n-1} implies X_nin F_n$ easily. By induction, $(X_n,F_n)$ is an adapted process. Also note that $X_{n-1}ge 1 implies X_nge 1$, hence $X_nge 1$ a.s. We find that $Bbb EX_1 =2<infty$ as a base case and
            $$begin{eqnarray}
            Bbb Eleft[X_{n+1}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|F_nright] &=&Bbb Eleft[left(log X_n+1right)^{Z_{n+1}}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|X_nright]\&= &sum_{k=0}^N frac{e^{-1}left(log X_n +1right)^k}{k!}\
            &stackrel{Ntoinfty}longrightarrow&e^{-1}e^{log X_n +1}=X_n.
            end{eqnarray}$$
            By induction and monotone convergence theorem, it follows $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]$ is integrable and $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]= X_n$


          • Part (b):



          First note that since $(X_n, F_n)$ is a $L^1$-bounded martingale, there exists
          $$
          X =lim_{ntoinfty} X_nin [1,infty) quadtext{a.s.}
          $$
          by martingale convergence theorem. Let $A ={X>1}$.
          By taking logarithms, we find that
          $$
          log X_{n} =Z_n log left(log X_{n-1}+1right).
          $$
          From this we obtain
          $$
          Z_n stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow frac{log X}{log left(log X+1right)} quadtext{a.s. on } A.
          $$
          On the other hand, by strong law of large numbers
          $$
          frac{Z_1+Z_2+cdots +Z_n}{n}stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow 1 quadtext{a.s.}
          $$
          Since the Cesaro limit is equal to the limit if both exist, we have
          $$
          X=log X+1 quadtext{a.s. on } A.
          $$
          Since $log t < t-1$ for all $tne 1$, this is impossible on $A={X> 1}$. Hence $Asubset A^c$ a.s. and $Bbb P(A)=0$ as desired.




          • Part (c):



          Note that if $(X_n,F_n)$ is $L^p$-bounded for $p>1$, martingale convergence theorem implies that
          $$
          X_n to X=1quadtext{both a.s. and in} L^p.
          $$
          But this implies that
          $$
          X_1 =Bbb E[X_n |F_1] stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow Bbb E [X|F_1] =1 text{ in } L^p
          $$
          leading to the contradiction.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




          • Part (a):

            As @Davide pointed out, we can see $X_{n-1}in F_{n-1} implies X_nin F_n$ easily. By induction, $(X_n,F_n)$ is an adapted process. Also note that $X_{n-1}ge 1 implies X_nge 1$, hence $X_nge 1$ a.s. We find that $Bbb EX_1 =2<infty$ as a base case and
            $$begin{eqnarray}
            Bbb Eleft[X_{n+1}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|F_nright] &=&Bbb Eleft[left(log X_n+1right)^{Z_{n+1}}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|X_nright]\&= &sum_{k=0}^N frac{e^{-1}left(log X_n +1right)^k}{k!}\
            &stackrel{Ntoinfty}longrightarrow&e^{-1}e^{log X_n +1}=X_n.
            end{eqnarray}$$
            By induction and monotone convergence theorem, it follows $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]$ is integrable and $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]= X_n$


          • Part (b):



          First note that since $(X_n, F_n)$ is a $L^1$-bounded martingale, there exists
          $$
          X =lim_{ntoinfty} X_nin [1,infty) quadtext{a.s.}
          $$
          by martingale convergence theorem. Let $A ={X>1}$.
          By taking logarithms, we find that
          $$
          log X_{n} =Z_n log left(log X_{n-1}+1right).
          $$
          From this we obtain
          $$
          Z_n stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow frac{log X}{log left(log X+1right)} quadtext{a.s. on } A.
          $$
          On the other hand, by strong law of large numbers
          $$
          frac{Z_1+Z_2+cdots +Z_n}{n}stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow 1 quadtext{a.s.}
          $$
          Since the Cesaro limit is equal to the limit if both exist, we have
          $$
          X=log X+1 quadtext{a.s. on } A.
          $$
          Since $log t < t-1$ for all $tne 1$, this is impossible on $A={X> 1}$. Hence $Asubset A^c$ a.s. and $Bbb P(A)=0$ as desired.




          • Part (c):



          Note that if $(X_n,F_n)$ is $L^p$-bounded for $p>1$, martingale convergence theorem implies that
          $$
          X_n to X=1quadtext{both a.s. and in} L^p.
          $$
          But this implies that
          $$
          X_1 =Bbb E[X_n |F_1] stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow Bbb E [X|F_1] =1 text{ in } L^p
          $$
          leading to the contradiction.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 28 at 13:18









          SongSong

          18.5k21651




          18.5k21651












          • $begingroup$
            Why is $X_n$ bounded in $L^1$?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:37










          • $begingroup$
            And could you explain why we have a contradiction in (c)?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:41










          • $begingroup$
            1. Since $X_n$ is non-negative and $X_n$ is a martingale. 2. Since $X_1=1+Z_1$ is not constant $1$. Is it convincing?
            $endgroup$
            – Song
            Jan 28 at 13:42












          • $begingroup$
            Ah, I see 1. now. Because of non-negative and martingale we have $mathbb{E}|X_n|=mathbb{E}(X_n)=mathbb{E}(X_1)=2$. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:55


















          • $begingroup$
            Why is $X_n$ bounded in $L^1$?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:37










          • $begingroup$
            And could you explain why we have a contradiction in (c)?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:41










          • $begingroup$
            1. Since $X_n$ is non-negative and $X_n$ is a martingale. 2. Since $X_1=1+Z_1$ is not constant $1$. Is it convincing?
            $endgroup$
            – Song
            Jan 28 at 13:42












          • $begingroup$
            Ah, I see 1. now. Because of non-negative and martingale we have $mathbb{E}|X_n|=mathbb{E}(X_n)=mathbb{E}(X_1)=2$. Thank you
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 13:55
















          $begingroup$
          Why is $X_n$ bounded in $L^1$?
          $endgroup$
          – Joachim Doyle
          Jan 28 at 13:37




          $begingroup$
          Why is $X_n$ bounded in $L^1$?
          $endgroup$
          – Joachim Doyle
          Jan 28 at 13:37












          $begingroup$
          And could you explain why we have a contradiction in (c)?
          $endgroup$
          – Joachim Doyle
          Jan 28 at 13:41




          $begingroup$
          And could you explain why we have a contradiction in (c)?
          $endgroup$
          – Joachim Doyle
          Jan 28 at 13:41












          $begingroup$
          1. Since $X_n$ is non-negative and $X_n$ is a martingale. 2. Since $X_1=1+Z_1$ is not constant $1$. Is it convincing?
          $endgroup$
          – Song
          Jan 28 at 13:42






          $begingroup$
          1. Since $X_n$ is non-negative and $X_n$ is a martingale. 2. Since $X_1=1+Z_1$ is not constant $1$. Is it convincing?
          $endgroup$
          – Song
          Jan 28 at 13:42














          $begingroup$
          Ah, I see 1. now. Because of non-negative and martingale we have $mathbb{E}|X_n|=mathbb{E}(X_n)=mathbb{E}(X_1)=2$. Thank you
          $endgroup$
          – Joachim Doyle
          Jan 28 at 13:55




          $begingroup$
          Ah, I see 1. now. Because of non-negative and martingale we have $mathbb{E}|X_n|=mathbb{E}(X_n)=mathbb{E}(X_1)=2$. Thank you
          $endgroup$
          – Joachim Doyle
          Jan 28 at 13:55











          3












          $begingroup$

          Observe that we can prove by induction that $X_n$ is $mathcal F_n$-measurable and that $X_ngeqslant 1$ almost surely. Since $Z_n$ is independent of $X_{n-1}$, it follows that
          $$mathbb Eleftlvert X_nrightrvert=mathbb Eleft[sum_{k=0}^{+infty}e^{-1}frac{1}{k!}left(1+log X_{n-1}right)^kright]=e^{-1}mathbb Eleft[ expleft(1+log X_{n-1}right) right]=mathbb Eleftlvert X_{n-1}rightrvert.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Could you take a look at my edit, would that be correct for the conditional expectation? Also how would I start for b) and c)?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 12:13
















          3












          $begingroup$

          Observe that we can prove by induction that $X_n$ is $mathcal F_n$-measurable and that $X_ngeqslant 1$ almost surely. Since $Z_n$ is independent of $X_{n-1}$, it follows that
          $$mathbb Eleftlvert X_nrightrvert=mathbb Eleft[sum_{k=0}^{+infty}e^{-1}frac{1}{k!}left(1+log X_{n-1}right)^kright]=e^{-1}mathbb Eleft[ expleft(1+log X_{n-1}right) right]=mathbb Eleftlvert X_{n-1}rightrvert.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Could you take a look at my edit, would that be correct for the conditional expectation? Also how would I start for b) and c)?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 12:13














          3












          3








          3





          $begingroup$

          Observe that we can prove by induction that $X_n$ is $mathcal F_n$-measurable and that $X_ngeqslant 1$ almost surely. Since $Z_n$ is independent of $X_{n-1}$, it follows that
          $$mathbb Eleftlvert X_nrightrvert=mathbb Eleft[sum_{k=0}^{+infty}e^{-1}frac{1}{k!}left(1+log X_{n-1}right)^kright]=e^{-1}mathbb Eleft[ expleft(1+log X_{n-1}right) right]=mathbb Eleftlvert X_{n-1}rightrvert.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          Observe that we can prove by induction that $X_n$ is $mathcal F_n$-measurable and that $X_ngeqslant 1$ almost surely. Since $Z_n$ is independent of $X_{n-1}$, it follows that
          $$mathbb Eleftlvert X_nrightrvert=mathbb Eleft[sum_{k=0}^{+infty}e^{-1}frac{1}{k!}left(1+log X_{n-1}right)^kright]=e^{-1}mathbb Eleft[ expleft(1+log X_{n-1}right) right]=mathbb Eleftlvert X_{n-1}rightrvert.$$







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 28 at 11:30









          Davide GiraudoDavide Giraudo

          128k17154268




          128k17154268












          • $begingroup$
            Could you take a look at my edit, would that be correct for the conditional expectation? Also how would I start for b) and c)?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 12:13


















          • $begingroup$
            Could you take a look at my edit, would that be correct for the conditional expectation? Also how would I start for b) and c)?
            $endgroup$
            – Joachim Doyle
            Jan 28 at 12:13
















          $begingroup$
          Could you take a look at my edit, would that be correct for the conditional expectation? Also how would I start for b) and c)?
          $endgroup$
          – Joachim Doyle
          Jan 28 at 12:13




          $begingroup$
          Could you take a look at my edit, would that be correct for the conditional expectation? Also how would I start for b) and c)?
          $endgroup$
          – Joachim Doyle
          Jan 28 at 12:13


















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