Logarithm of martingale to the power of a Poisson random variable is a martingale
$begingroup$
Let $(Z_n)_n$ be independently Poisson(1) distributed random variables.
Let $X_1=Z_1+1$ and
$$X_n=(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}$$
for $n>1$ and define $F_n=sigma(Z_1,...,Z_n)$.
How do I show that
a) $X_n$ is a $F_n$-martingale
b) its limit is $1$ almost surely
c) it is not bounded in $L^p$ for any $p>1$?
For a) we need to show that $mathbb{E}|X_n|<infty$, but how do I write $mathbb{E}|(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|$?
Further we want $mathbb{E}[X_n|f_{n-1}]=X_{n-1}$, but again I don't know what to do with the power of $Z_n$?
EDIT:
Based on Davide Giraudo's reply, I write for the martingale condition
$$begin{align*}
mathbb{E}[(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|F_n]&=mathbb{E}[sumlimits_{kinmathbb{N}}frac{1}{ecdot k!}(log X_{n-1}+1)^k|F_n]\
&=e^{-1}mathbb{E}[exp(log X_{n-1}+1)|F_n]\
&=mathbb{E}[X_{n-1}|F_{n-1}]\
&=X_{n-1}
end{align*}$$
convergence martingales
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $(Z_n)_n$ be independently Poisson(1) distributed random variables.
Let $X_1=Z_1+1$ and
$$X_n=(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}$$
for $n>1$ and define $F_n=sigma(Z_1,...,Z_n)$.
How do I show that
a) $X_n$ is a $F_n$-martingale
b) its limit is $1$ almost surely
c) it is not bounded in $L^p$ for any $p>1$?
For a) we need to show that $mathbb{E}|X_n|<infty$, but how do I write $mathbb{E}|(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|$?
Further we want $mathbb{E}[X_n|f_{n-1}]=X_{n-1}$, but again I don't know what to do with the power of $Z_n$?
EDIT:
Based on Davide Giraudo's reply, I write for the martingale condition
$$begin{align*}
mathbb{E}[(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|F_n]&=mathbb{E}[sumlimits_{kinmathbb{N}}frac{1}{ecdot k!}(log X_{n-1}+1)^k|F_n]\
&=e^{-1}mathbb{E}[exp(log X_{n-1}+1)|F_n]\
&=mathbb{E}[X_{n-1}|F_{n-1}]\
&=X_{n-1}
end{align*}$$
convergence martingales
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Let $(Z_n)_n$ be independently Poisson(1) distributed random variables.
Let $X_1=Z_1+1$ and
$$X_n=(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}$$
for $n>1$ and define $F_n=sigma(Z_1,...,Z_n)$.
How do I show that
a) $X_n$ is a $F_n$-martingale
b) its limit is $1$ almost surely
c) it is not bounded in $L^p$ for any $p>1$?
For a) we need to show that $mathbb{E}|X_n|<infty$, but how do I write $mathbb{E}|(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|$?
Further we want $mathbb{E}[X_n|f_{n-1}]=X_{n-1}$, but again I don't know what to do with the power of $Z_n$?
EDIT:
Based on Davide Giraudo's reply, I write for the martingale condition
$$begin{align*}
mathbb{E}[(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|F_n]&=mathbb{E}[sumlimits_{kinmathbb{N}}frac{1}{ecdot k!}(log X_{n-1}+1)^k|F_n]\
&=e^{-1}mathbb{E}[exp(log X_{n-1}+1)|F_n]\
&=mathbb{E}[X_{n-1}|F_{n-1}]\
&=X_{n-1}
end{align*}$$
convergence martingales
$endgroup$
Let $(Z_n)_n$ be independently Poisson(1) distributed random variables.
Let $X_1=Z_1+1$ and
$$X_n=(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}$$
for $n>1$ and define $F_n=sigma(Z_1,...,Z_n)$.
How do I show that
a) $X_n$ is a $F_n$-martingale
b) its limit is $1$ almost surely
c) it is not bounded in $L^p$ for any $p>1$?
For a) we need to show that $mathbb{E}|X_n|<infty$, but how do I write $mathbb{E}|(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|$?
Further we want $mathbb{E}[X_n|f_{n-1}]=X_{n-1}$, but again I don't know what to do with the power of $Z_n$?
EDIT:
Based on Davide Giraudo's reply, I write for the martingale condition
$$begin{align*}
mathbb{E}[(log X_{n-1}+1)^{Z_n}|F_n]&=mathbb{E}[sumlimits_{kinmathbb{N}}frac{1}{ecdot k!}(log X_{n-1}+1)^k|F_n]\
&=e^{-1}mathbb{E}[exp(log X_{n-1}+1)|F_n]\
&=mathbb{E}[X_{n-1}|F_{n-1}]\
&=X_{n-1}
end{align*}$$
convergence martingales
convergence martingales
edited Jan 28 at 12:12
Joachim Doyle
asked Jan 28 at 11:18
Joachim DoyleJoachim Doyle
818
818
add a comment |
add a comment |
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
- Part (a):
As @Davide pointed out, we can see $X_{n-1}in F_{n-1} implies X_nin F_n$ easily. By induction, $(X_n,F_n)$ is an adapted process. Also note that $X_{n-1}ge 1 implies X_nge 1$, hence $X_nge 1$ a.s. We find that $Bbb EX_1 =2<infty$ as a base case and
$$begin{eqnarray}
Bbb Eleft[X_{n+1}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|F_nright] &=&Bbb Eleft[left(log X_n+1right)^{Z_{n+1}}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|X_nright]\&= &sum_{k=0}^N frac{e^{-1}left(log X_n +1right)^k}{k!}\
&stackrel{Ntoinfty}longrightarrow&e^{-1}e^{log X_n +1}=X_n.
end{eqnarray}$$ By induction and monotone convergence theorem, it follows $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]$ is integrable and $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]= X_n$
- Part (b):
First note that since $(X_n, F_n)$ is a $L^1$-bounded martingale, there exists
$$
X =lim_{ntoinfty} X_nin [1,infty) quadtext{a.s.}
$$ by martingale convergence theorem. Let $A ={X>1}$.
By taking logarithms, we find that
$$
log X_{n} =Z_n log left(log X_{n-1}+1right).
$$ From this we obtain
$$
Z_n stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow frac{log X}{log left(log X+1right)} quadtext{a.s. on } A.
$$ On the other hand, by strong law of large numbers
$$
frac{Z_1+Z_2+cdots +Z_n}{n}stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow 1 quadtext{a.s.}
$$ Since the Cesaro limit is equal to the limit if both exist, we have
$$
X=log X+1 quadtext{a.s. on } A.
$$ Since $log t < t-1$ for all $tne 1$, this is impossible on $A={X> 1}$. Hence $Asubset A^c$ a.s. and $Bbb P(A)=0$ as desired.
- Part (c):
Note that if $(X_n,F_n)$ is $L^p$-bounded for $p>1$, martingale convergence theorem implies that
$$
X_n to X=1quadtext{both a.s. and in} L^p.
$$ But this implies that
$$
X_1 =Bbb E[X_n |F_1] stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow Bbb E [X|F_1] =1 text{ in } L^p
$$ leading to the contradiction.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why is $X_n$ bounded in $L^1$?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:37
$begingroup$
And could you explain why we have a contradiction in (c)?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:41
$begingroup$
1. Since $X_n$ is non-negative and $X_n$ is a martingale. 2. Since $X_1=1+Z_1$ is not constant $1$. Is it convincing?
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 28 at 13:42
$begingroup$
Ah, I see 1. now. Because of non-negative and martingale we have $mathbb{E}|X_n|=mathbb{E}(X_n)=mathbb{E}(X_1)=2$. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:55
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Observe that we can prove by induction that $X_n$ is $mathcal F_n$-measurable and that $X_ngeqslant 1$ almost surely. Since $Z_n$ is independent of $X_{n-1}$, it follows that
$$mathbb Eleftlvert X_nrightrvert=mathbb Eleft[sum_{k=0}^{+infty}e^{-1}frac{1}{k!}left(1+log X_{n-1}right)^kright]=e^{-1}mathbb Eleft[ expleft(1+log X_{n-1}right) right]=mathbb Eleftlvert X_{n-1}rightrvert.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Could you take a look at my edit, would that be correct for the conditional expectation? Also how would I start for b) and c)?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 12:13
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
- Part (a):
As @Davide pointed out, we can see $X_{n-1}in F_{n-1} implies X_nin F_n$ easily. By induction, $(X_n,F_n)$ is an adapted process. Also note that $X_{n-1}ge 1 implies X_nge 1$, hence $X_nge 1$ a.s. We find that $Bbb EX_1 =2<infty$ as a base case and
$$begin{eqnarray}
Bbb Eleft[X_{n+1}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|F_nright] &=&Bbb Eleft[left(log X_n+1right)^{Z_{n+1}}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|X_nright]\&= &sum_{k=0}^N frac{e^{-1}left(log X_n +1right)^k}{k!}\
&stackrel{Ntoinfty}longrightarrow&e^{-1}e^{log X_n +1}=X_n.
end{eqnarray}$$ By induction and monotone convergence theorem, it follows $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]$ is integrable and $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]= X_n$
- Part (b):
First note that since $(X_n, F_n)$ is a $L^1$-bounded martingale, there exists
$$
X =lim_{ntoinfty} X_nin [1,infty) quadtext{a.s.}
$$ by martingale convergence theorem. Let $A ={X>1}$.
By taking logarithms, we find that
$$
log X_{n} =Z_n log left(log X_{n-1}+1right).
$$ From this we obtain
$$
Z_n stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow frac{log X}{log left(log X+1right)} quadtext{a.s. on } A.
$$ On the other hand, by strong law of large numbers
$$
frac{Z_1+Z_2+cdots +Z_n}{n}stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow 1 quadtext{a.s.}
$$ Since the Cesaro limit is equal to the limit if both exist, we have
$$
X=log X+1 quadtext{a.s. on } A.
$$ Since $log t < t-1$ for all $tne 1$, this is impossible on $A={X> 1}$. Hence $Asubset A^c$ a.s. and $Bbb P(A)=0$ as desired.
- Part (c):
Note that if $(X_n,F_n)$ is $L^p$-bounded for $p>1$, martingale convergence theorem implies that
$$
X_n to X=1quadtext{both a.s. and in} L^p.
$$ But this implies that
$$
X_1 =Bbb E[X_n |F_1] stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow Bbb E [X|F_1] =1 text{ in } L^p
$$ leading to the contradiction.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why is $X_n$ bounded in $L^1$?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:37
$begingroup$
And could you explain why we have a contradiction in (c)?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:41
$begingroup$
1. Since $X_n$ is non-negative and $X_n$ is a martingale. 2. Since $X_1=1+Z_1$ is not constant $1$. Is it convincing?
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 28 at 13:42
$begingroup$
Ah, I see 1. now. Because of non-negative and martingale we have $mathbb{E}|X_n|=mathbb{E}(X_n)=mathbb{E}(X_1)=2$. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:55
add a comment |
$begingroup$
- Part (a):
As @Davide pointed out, we can see $X_{n-1}in F_{n-1} implies X_nin F_n$ easily. By induction, $(X_n,F_n)$ is an adapted process. Also note that $X_{n-1}ge 1 implies X_nge 1$, hence $X_nge 1$ a.s. We find that $Bbb EX_1 =2<infty$ as a base case and
$$begin{eqnarray}
Bbb Eleft[X_{n+1}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|F_nright] &=&Bbb Eleft[left(log X_n+1right)^{Z_{n+1}}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|X_nright]\&= &sum_{k=0}^N frac{e^{-1}left(log X_n +1right)^k}{k!}\
&stackrel{Ntoinfty}longrightarrow&e^{-1}e^{log X_n +1}=X_n.
end{eqnarray}$$ By induction and monotone convergence theorem, it follows $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]$ is integrable and $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]= X_n$
- Part (b):
First note that since $(X_n, F_n)$ is a $L^1$-bounded martingale, there exists
$$
X =lim_{ntoinfty} X_nin [1,infty) quadtext{a.s.}
$$ by martingale convergence theorem. Let $A ={X>1}$.
By taking logarithms, we find that
$$
log X_{n} =Z_n log left(log X_{n-1}+1right).
$$ From this we obtain
$$
Z_n stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow frac{log X}{log left(log X+1right)} quadtext{a.s. on } A.
$$ On the other hand, by strong law of large numbers
$$
frac{Z_1+Z_2+cdots +Z_n}{n}stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow 1 quadtext{a.s.}
$$ Since the Cesaro limit is equal to the limit if both exist, we have
$$
X=log X+1 quadtext{a.s. on } A.
$$ Since $log t < t-1$ for all $tne 1$, this is impossible on $A={X> 1}$. Hence $Asubset A^c$ a.s. and $Bbb P(A)=0$ as desired.
- Part (c):
Note that if $(X_n,F_n)$ is $L^p$-bounded for $p>1$, martingale convergence theorem implies that
$$
X_n to X=1quadtext{both a.s. and in} L^p.
$$ But this implies that
$$
X_1 =Bbb E[X_n |F_1] stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow Bbb E [X|F_1] =1 text{ in } L^p
$$ leading to the contradiction.
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Why is $X_n$ bounded in $L^1$?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:37
$begingroup$
And could you explain why we have a contradiction in (c)?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:41
$begingroup$
1. Since $X_n$ is non-negative and $X_n$ is a martingale. 2. Since $X_1=1+Z_1$ is not constant $1$. Is it convincing?
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 28 at 13:42
$begingroup$
Ah, I see 1. now. Because of non-negative and martingale we have $mathbb{E}|X_n|=mathbb{E}(X_n)=mathbb{E}(X_1)=2$. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:55
add a comment |
$begingroup$
- Part (a):
As @Davide pointed out, we can see $X_{n-1}in F_{n-1} implies X_nin F_n$ easily. By induction, $(X_n,F_n)$ is an adapted process. Also note that $X_{n-1}ge 1 implies X_nge 1$, hence $X_nge 1$ a.s. We find that $Bbb EX_1 =2<infty$ as a base case and
$$begin{eqnarray}
Bbb Eleft[X_{n+1}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|F_nright] &=&Bbb Eleft[left(log X_n+1right)^{Z_{n+1}}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|X_nright]\&= &sum_{k=0}^N frac{e^{-1}left(log X_n +1right)^k}{k!}\
&stackrel{Ntoinfty}longrightarrow&e^{-1}e^{log X_n +1}=X_n.
end{eqnarray}$$ By induction and monotone convergence theorem, it follows $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]$ is integrable and $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]= X_n$
- Part (b):
First note that since $(X_n, F_n)$ is a $L^1$-bounded martingale, there exists
$$
X =lim_{ntoinfty} X_nin [1,infty) quadtext{a.s.}
$$ by martingale convergence theorem. Let $A ={X>1}$.
By taking logarithms, we find that
$$
log X_{n} =Z_n log left(log X_{n-1}+1right).
$$ From this we obtain
$$
Z_n stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow frac{log X}{log left(log X+1right)} quadtext{a.s. on } A.
$$ On the other hand, by strong law of large numbers
$$
frac{Z_1+Z_2+cdots +Z_n}{n}stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow 1 quadtext{a.s.}
$$ Since the Cesaro limit is equal to the limit if both exist, we have
$$
X=log X+1 quadtext{a.s. on } A.
$$ Since $log t < t-1$ for all $tne 1$, this is impossible on $A={X> 1}$. Hence $Asubset A^c$ a.s. and $Bbb P(A)=0$ as desired.
- Part (c):
Note that if $(X_n,F_n)$ is $L^p$-bounded for $p>1$, martingale convergence theorem implies that
$$
X_n to X=1quadtext{both a.s. and in} L^p.
$$ But this implies that
$$
X_1 =Bbb E[X_n |F_1] stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow Bbb E [X|F_1] =1 text{ in } L^p
$$ leading to the contradiction.
$endgroup$
- Part (a):
As @Davide pointed out, we can see $X_{n-1}in F_{n-1} implies X_nin F_n$ easily. By induction, $(X_n,F_n)$ is an adapted process. Also note that $X_{n-1}ge 1 implies X_nge 1$, hence $X_nge 1$ a.s. We find that $Bbb EX_1 =2<infty$ as a base case and
$$begin{eqnarray}
Bbb Eleft[X_{n+1}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|F_nright] &=&Bbb Eleft[left(log X_n+1right)^{Z_{n+1}}1_{{Z_{n+1}le N}}|X_nright]\&= &sum_{k=0}^N frac{e^{-1}left(log X_n +1right)^k}{k!}\
&stackrel{Ntoinfty}longrightarrow&e^{-1}e^{log X_n +1}=X_n.
end{eqnarray}$$ By induction and monotone convergence theorem, it follows $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]$ is integrable and $Bbb E[X_{n+1}|F_n]= X_n$
- Part (b):
First note that since $(X_n, F_n)$ is a $L^1$-bounded martingale, there exists
$$
X =lim_{ntoinfty} X_nin [1,infty) quadtext{a.s.}
$$ by martingale convergence theorem. Let $A ={X>1}$.
By taking logarithms, we find that
$$
log X_{n} =Z_n log left(log X_{n-1}+1right).
$$ From this we obtain
$$
Z_n stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow frac{log X}{log left(log X+1right)} quadtext{a.s. on } A.
$$ On the other hand, by strong law of large numbers
$$
frac{Z_1+Z_2+cdots +Z_n}{n}stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow 1 quadtext{a.s.}
$$ Since the Cesaro limit is equal to the limit if both exist, we have
$$
X=log X+1 quadtext{a.s. on } A.
$$ Since $log t < t-1$ for all $tne 1$, this is impossible on $A={X> 1}$. Hence $Asubset A^c$ a.s. and $Bbb P(A)=0$ as desired.
- Part (c):
Note that if $(X_n,F_n)$ is $L^p$-bounded for $p>1$, martingale convergence theorem implies that
$$
X_n to X=1quadtext{both a.s. and in} L^p.
$$ But this implies that
$$
X_1 =Bbb E[X_n |F_1] stackrel{ntoinfty}longrightarrow Bbb E [X|F_1] =1 text{ in } L^p
$$ leading to the contradiction.
answered Jan 28 at 13:18


SongSong
18.5k21651
18.5k21651
$begingroup$
Why is $X_n$ bounded in $L^1$?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:37
$begingroup$
And could you explain why we have a contradiction in (c)?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:41
$begingroup$
1. Since $X_n$ is non-negative and $X_n$ is a martingale. 2. Since $X_1=1+Z_1$ is not constant $1$. Is it convincing?
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 28 at 13:42
$begingroup$
Ah, I see 1. now. Because of non-negative and martingale we have $mathbb{E}|X_n|=mathbb{E}(X_n)=mathbb{E}(X_1)=2$. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:55
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Why is $X_n$ bounded in $L^1$?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:37
$begingroup$
And could you explain why we have a contradiction in (c)?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:41
$begingroup$
1. Since $X_n$ is non-negative and $X_n$ is a martingale. 2. Since $X_1=1+Z_1$ is not constant $1$. Is it convincing?
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 28 at 13:42
$begingroup$
Ah, I see 1. now. Because of non-negative and martingale we have $mathbb{E}|X_n|=mathbb{E}(X_n)=mathbb{E}(X_1)=2$. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:55
$begingroup$
Why is $X_n$ bounded in $L^1$?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:37
$begingroup$
Why is $X_n$ bounded in $L^1$?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:37
$begingroup$
And could you explain why we have a contradiction in (c)?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:41
$begingroup$
And could you explain why we have a contradiction in (c)?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:41
$begingroup$
1. Since $X_n$ is non-negative and $X_n$ is a martingale. 2. Since $X_1=1+Z_1$ is not constant $1$. Is it convincing?
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 28 at 13:42
$begingroup$
1. Since $X_n$ is non-negative and $X_n$ is a martingale. 2. Since $X_1=1+Z_1$ is not constant $1$. Is it convincing?
$endgroup$
– Song
Jan 28 at 13:42
$begingroup$
Ah, I see 1. now. Because of non-negative and martingale we have $mathbb{E}|X_n|=mathbb{E}(X_n)=mathbb{E}(X_1)=2$. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:55
$begingroup$
Ah, I see 1. now. Because of non-negative and martingale we have $mathbb{E}|X_n|=mathbb{E}(X_n)=mathbb{E}(X_1)=2$. Thank you
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 13:55
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Observe that we can prove by induction that $X_n$ is $mathcal F_n$-measurable and that $X_ngeqslant 1$ almost surely. Since $Z_n$ is independent of $X_{n-1}$, it follows that
$$mathbb Eleftlvert X_nrightrvert=mathbb Eleft[sum_{k=0}^{+infty}e^{-1}frac{1}{k!}left(1+log X_{n-1}right)^kright]=e^{-1}mathbb Eleft[ expleft(1+log X_{n-1}right) right]=mathbb Eleftlvert X_{n-1}rightrvert.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Could you take a look at my edit, would that be correct for the conditional expectation? Also how would I start for b) and c)?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 12:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Observe that we can prove by induction that $X_n$ is $mathcal F_n$-measurable and that $X_ngeqslant 1$ almost surely. Since $Z_n$ is independent of $X_{n-1}$, it follows that
$$mathbb Eleftlvert X_nrightrvert=mathbb Eleft[sum_{k=0}^{+infty}e^{-1}frac{1}{k!}left(1+log X_{n-1}right)^kright]=e^{-1}mathbb Eleft[ expleft(1+log X_{n-1}right) right]=mathbb Eleftlvert X_{n-1}rightrvert.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Could you take a look at my edit, would that be correct for the conditional expectation? Also how would I start for b) and c)?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 12:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Observe that we can prove by induction that $X_n$ is $mathcal F_n$-measurable and that $X_ngeqslant 1$ almost surely. Since $Z_n$ is independent of $X_{n-1}$, it follows that
$$mathbb Eleftlvert X_nrightrvert=mathbb Eleft[sum_{k=0}^{+infty}e^{-1}frac{1}{k!}left(1+log X_{n-1}right)^kright]=e^{-1}mathbb Eleft[ expleft(1+log X_{n-1}right) right]=mathbb Eleftlvert X_{n-1}rightrvert.$$
$endgroup$
Observe that we can prove by induction that $X_n$ is $mathcal F_n$-measurable and that $X_ngeqslant 1$ almost surely. Since $Z_n$ is independent of $X_{n-1}$, it follows that
$$mathbb Eleftlvert X_nrightrvert=mathbb Eleft[sum_{k=0}^{+infty}e^{-1}frac{1}{k!}left(1+log X_{n-1}right)^kright]=e^{-1}mathbb Eleft[ expleft(1+log X_{n-1}right) right]=mathbb Eleftlvert X_{n-1}rightrvert.$$
answered Jan 28 at 11:30


Davide GiraudoDavide Giraudo
128k17154268
128k17154268
$begingroup$
Could you take a look at my edit, would that be correct for the conditional expectation? Also how would I start for b) and c)?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 12:13
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Could you take a look at my edit, would that be correct for the conditional expectation? Also how would I start for b) and c)?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 12:13
$begingroup$
Could you take a look at my edit, would that be correct for the conditional expectation? Also how would I start for b) and c)?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 12:13
$begingroup$
Could you take a look at my edit, would that be correct for the conditional expectation? Also how would I start for b) and c)?
$endgroup$
– Joachim Doyle
Jan 28 at 12:13
add a comment |
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