Writing the set of Liouville numbers as an intersection of dense open subsets of $mathbb{R}$












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On the Wikipedia page they write the set of all Liouville numbers as $displaystyle{L = bigcap _ { n = 1 } ^ { infty } U _ { n }}$, and it's stated that each $U_n$ is an open dense subsets of $mathbb{R}$, where:



$$U _ { n } = bigcup _ { q = 2 } ^ { infty } bigcup _ { p = - infty } ^ { infty } left{ x in mathbb { R } : 0 < left| x - frac { p } { q } right| < frac { 1 } { q ^ { n } } right} = bigcup _ { q = 2 } ^ { infty } bigcup _ { p = - infty } ^ { infty } left( frac { p } { q } - frac { 1 } { q ^ { n } } , frac { p } { q } + frac { 1 } { q ^ { n } } right) backslash left{ frac { p } { q } right}$$



My question: why is each $U_n$ an open dense subset of $mathbb{R}$?










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  • $begingroup$
    Open is obvious: union of open sets. Dense takes a little more work. Note that this implies that the Liouville numbers are dense in the reals, by Baire category theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Math_QED
    Jan 28 at 14:51










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, I see now how obvious it is that they are open. But how would one show that they're dense in the reals?
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Andrade
    Jan 28 at 14:59
















1












$begingroup$


On the Wikipedia page they write the set of all Liouville numbers as $displaystyle{L = bigcap _ { n = 1 } ^ { infty } U _ { n }}$, and it's stated that each $U_n$ is an open dense subsets of $mathbb{R}$, where:



$$U _ { n } = bigcup _ { q = 2 } ^ { infty } bigcup _ { p = - infty } ^ { infty } left{ x in mathbb { R } : 0 < left| x - frac { p } { q } right| < frac { 1 } { q ^ { n } } right} = bigcup _ { q = 2 } ^ { infty } bigcup _ { p = - infty } ^ { infty } left( frac { p } { q } - frac { 1 } { q ^ { n } } , frac { p } { q } + frac { 1 } { q ^ { n } } right) backslash left{ frac { p } { q } right}$$



My question: why is each $U_n$ an open dense subset of $mathbb{R}$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Open is obvious: union of open sets. Dense takes a little more work. Note that this implies that the Liouville numbers are dense in the reals, by Baire category theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Math_QED
    Jan 28 at 14:51










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, I see now how obvious it is that they are open. But how would one show that they're dense in the reals?
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Andrade
    Jan 28 at 14:59














1












1








1





$begingroup$


On the Wikipedia page they write the set of all Liouville numbers as $displaystyle{L = bigcap _ { n = 1 } ^ { infty } U _ { n }}$, and it's stated that each $U_n$ is an open dense subsets of $mathbb{R}$, where:



$$U _ { n } = bigcup _ { q = 2 } ^ { infty } bigcup _ { p = - infty } ^ { infty } left{ x in mathbb { R } : 0 < left| x - frac { p } { q } right| < frac { 1 } { q ^ { n } } right} = bigcup _ { q = 2 } ^ { infty } bigcup _ { p = - infty } ^ { infty } left( frac { p } { q } - frac { 1 } { q ^ { n } } , frac { p } { q } + frac { 1 } { q ^ { n } } right) backslash left{ frac { p } { q } right}$$



My question: why is each $U_n$ an open dense subset of $mathbb{R}$?










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




On the Wikipedia page they write the set of all Liouville numbers as $displaystyle{L = bigcap _ { n = 1 } ^ { infty } U _ { n }}$, and it's stated that each $U_n$ is an open dense subsets of $mathbb{R}$, where:



$$U _ { n } = bigcup _ { q = 2 } ^ { infty } bigcup _ { p = - infty } ^ { infty } left{ x in mathbb { R } : 0 < left| x - frac { p } { q } right| < frac { 1 } { q ^ { n } } right} = bigcup _ { q = 2 } ^ { infty } bigcup _ { p = - infty } ^ { infty } left( frac { p } { q } - frac { 1 } { q ^ { n } } , frac { p } { q } + frac { 1 } { q ^ { n } } right) backslash left{ frac { p } { q } right}$$



My question: why is each $U_n$ an open dense subset of $mathbb{R}$?







real-analysis number-theory liouville-numbers






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asked Jan 28 at 14:45









Matheus AndradeMatheus Andrade

1,340418




1,340418












  • $begingroup$
    Open is obvious: union of open sets. Dense takes a little more work. Note that this implies that the Liouville numbers are dense in the reals, by Baire category theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Math_QED
    Jan 28 at 14:51










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, I see now how obvious it is that they are open. But how would one show that they're dense in the reals?
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Andrade
    Jan 28 at 14:59


















  • $begingroup$
    Open is obvious: union of open sets. Dense takes a little more work. Note that this implies that the Liouville numbers are dense in the reals, by Baire category theorem.
    $endgroup$
    – Math_QED
    Jan 28 at 14:51










  • $begingroup$
    Ah, I see now how obvious it is that they are open. But how would one show that they're dense in the reals?
    $endgroup$
    – Matheus Andrade
    Jan 28 at 14:59
















$begingroup$
Open is obvious: union of open sets. Dense takes a little more work. Note that this implies that the Liouville numbers are dense in the reals, by Baire category theorem.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Jan 28 at 14:51




$begingroup$
Open is obvious: union of open sets. Dense takes a little more work. Note that this implies that the Liouville numbers are dense in the reals, by Baire category theorem.
$endgroup$
– Math_QED
Jan 28 at 14:51












$begingroup$
Ah, I see now how obvious it is that they are open. But how would one show that they're dense in the reals?
$endgroup$
– Matheus Andrade
Jan 28 at 14:59




$begingroup$
Ah, I see now how obvious it is that they are open. But how would one show that they're dense in the reals?
$endgroup$
– Matheus Andrade
Jan 28 at 14:59










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They're dense because $overline{U_n} supset mathbb{Q}$, so $overline{overline{U_n}} = overline{U_n} supset overline{mathbb{Q}} = mathbb{R}$.






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    $begingroup$

    They're dense because $overline{U_n} supset mathbb{Q}$, so $overline{overline{U_n}} = overline{U_n} supset overline{mathbb{Q}} = mathbb{R}$.






    share|cite|improve this answer











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      0












      $begingroup$

      They're dense because $overline{U_n} supset mathbb{Q}$, so $overline{overline{U_n}} = overline{U_n} supset overline{mathbb{Q}} = mathbb{R}$.






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$
















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        0





        $begingroup$

        They're dense because $overline{U_n} supset mathbb{Q}$, so $overline{overline{U_n}} = overline{U_n} supset overline{mathbb{Q}} = mathbb{R}$.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        They're dense because $overline{U_n} supset mathbb{Q}$, so $overline{overline{U_n}} = overline{U_n} supset overline{mathbb{Q}} = mathbb{R}$.







        share|cite|improve this answer














        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited Feb 3 at 21:47

























        answered Jan 28 at 15:11









        Matheus AndradeMatheus Andrade

        1,340418




        1,340418






























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