Why is Convolution Well-Defined (Simple Example)












4












$begingroup$


I am having trouble understanding why convolution is well-defined.



Let's take a simple example:



$(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$ probability space and $X_{1}, X_{2}$ two real random variables where $P(X_{1}=3)=frac{1}{2},P(X_{2}=2)=frac{1}{4}$



And $P(X_{1}=1)=frac{1}{5},P(X_{2}=4)=frac{1}{3}$



Then my understanding of convolution is



$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}$ where $A: X_{1} times X_{2}to mathbb R,A(x_{1},x_{2})=x_{1}+x_{2}$



So surely, if, for instance $X_{1}+X_{2}=5$, I get more than one preimage, and hence how can convolution be well-defined?



In the above case, I would get:



$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(3)P_{X_{2}}(2)=frac{1}{2}timesfrac{1}{4}=frac{1}{8}$ while



$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(1)P_{X_{2}}(4)=frac{1}{5}timesfrac{1}{3}=frac{1}{15}$



I do not know where I am going wrong in my understanding of convolution. Any help is greatly appreciated.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    4












    $begingroup$


    I am having trouble understanding why convolution is well-defined.



    Let's take a simple example:



    $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$ probability space and $X_{1}, X_{2}$ two real random variables where $P(X_{1}=3)=frac{1}{2},P(X_{2}=2)=frac{1}{4}$



    And $P(X_{1}=1)=frac{1}{5},P(X_{2}=4)=frac{1}{3}$



    Then my understanding of convolution is



    $P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}$ where $A: X_{1} times X_{2}to mathbb R,A(x_{1},x_{2})=x_{1}+x_{2}$



    So surely, if, for instance $X_{1}+X_{2}=5$, I get more than one preimage, and hence how can convolution be well-defined?



    In the above case, I would get:



    $P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(3)P_{X_{2}}(2)=frac{1}{2}timesfrac{1}{4}=frac{1}{8}$ while



    $P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(1)P_{X_{2}}(4)=frac{1}{5}timesfrac{1}{3}=frac{1}{15}$



    I do not know where I am going wrong in my understanding of convolution. Any help is greatly appreciated.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      4












      4








      4





      $begingroup$


      I am having trouble understanding why convolution is well-defined.



      Let's take a simple example:



      $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$ probability space and $X_{1}, X_{2}$ two real random variables where $P(X_{1}=3)=frac{1}{2},P(X_{2}=2)=frac{1}{4}$



      And $P(X_{1}=1)=frac{1}{5},P(X_{2}=4)=frac{1}{3}$



      Then my understanding of convolution is



      $P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}$ where $A: X_{1} times X_{2}to mathbb R,A(x_{1},x_{2})=x_{1}+x_{2}$



      So surely, if, for instance $X_{1}+X_{2}=5$, I get more than one preimage, and hence how can convolution be well-defined?



      In the above case, I would get:



      $P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(3)P_{X_{2}}(2)=frac{1}{2}timesfrac{1}{4}=frac{1}{8}$ while



      $P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(1)P_{X_{2}}(4)=frac{1}{5}timesfrac{1}{3}=frac{1}{15}$



      I do not know where I am going wrong in my understanding of convolution. Any help is greatly appreciated.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am having trouble understanding why convolution is well-defined.



      Let's take a simple example:



      $(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$ probability space and $X_{1}, X_{2}$ two real random variables where $P(X_{1}=3)=frac{1}{2},P(X_{2}=2)=frac{1}{4}$



      And $P(X_{1}=1)=frac{1}{5},P(X_{2}=4)=frac{1}{3}$



      Then my understanding of convolution is



      $P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}$ where $A: X_{1} times X_{2}to mathbb R,A(x_{1},x_{2})=x_{1}+x_{2}$



      So surely, if, for instance $X_{1}+X_{2}=5$, I get more than one preimage, and hence how can convolution be well-defined?



      In the above case, I would get:



      $P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(3)P_{X_{2}}(2)=frac{1}{2}timesfrac{1}{4}=frac{1}{8}$ while



      $P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(1)P_{X_{2}}(4)=frac{1}{5}timesfrac{1}{3}=frac{1}{15}$



      I do not know where I am going wrong in my understanding of convolution. Any help is greatly appreciated.







      probability probability-theory random-variables convolution






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      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Jan 28 at 14:32









      MinaThumaMinaThuma

      1968




      1968






















          1 Answer
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          $begingroup$

          If $P$ denotes the probability measure on $(Omega,mathcal F)$ then it induces for every random variable $Z$ a probability measure $P_Z$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ that is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$



          Here ${Zin B}$ abbreviates ${omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B}$ and $P(Zin B)$ abbreviates $P({Zin B})$



          So we have $P_Z(B)=P({Zin B}$ for Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.



          Another notation of this probability is $PZ^{-1}$ prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P(Z^{-1}(B))=P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$



          Observe that $P_Z$ and $PZ^{-1}$ are notations for the same measure.



          Also random vector $(X_1,X_2)$ induces a probability measure.



          This time denoted as $P_{(X_1,X_2)}$ and defined on $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2)$.



          If $A:mathbb R^2tomathbb R$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto x+y$ then $A$ is a Borel-measurable function.



          That means that it can be looked at as a random variable on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$.



          Applying the principle that was mentioned above on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$ we have measure $P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ and it is not difficult to deduce that:$$P_{X_1+X_2}=P_{Acirc(X_1,X_2)}=P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$$



          In your question you mix up the two notations, and this can be a source of confusion on its own.





          If $X_1,X_2$ are random variables then so is $X_1+X_2$.



          This with e.g.:$$P_{X_1+X_2}({5})=P(X_1+X_2in{5})=P(X_1+X_2=5)$$



          If moreover $X_1,X_2$ only take integers as value then this can be expanded to:$$cdots=sum_{n,minmathbb Zwedge n+m=5}P(X_1=nwedge X_2=m)$$









          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            On your last point, if $X_{1}, X_{2}$ are considered independent random variables, can I say $sum_{n,m in mathbb Z, n + m =5}P(X_{1}=n)P(X_{2}=m)$
            $endgroup$
            – MinaThuma
            Jan 28 at 17:51












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 28 at 18:57












          Your Answer





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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          2












          $begingroup$

          If $P$ denotes the probability measure on $(Omega,mathcal F)$ then it induces for every random variable $Z$ a probability measure $P_Z$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ that is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$



          Here ${Zin B}$ abbreviates ${omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B}$ and $P(Zin B)$ abbreviates $P({Zin B})$



          So we have $P_Z(B)=P({Zin B}$ for Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.



          Another notation of this probability is $PZ^{-1}$ prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P(Z^{-1}(B))=P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$



          Observe that $P_Z$ and $PZ^{-1}$ are notations for the same measure.



          Also random vector $(X_1,X_2)$ induces a probability measure.



          This time denoted as $P_{(X_1,X_2)}$ and defined on $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2)$.



          If $A:mathbb R^2tomathbb R$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto x+y$ then $A$ is a Borel-measurable function.



          That means that it can be looked at as a random variable on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$.



          Applying the principle that was mentioned above on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$ we have measure $P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ and it is not difficult to deduce that:$$P_{X_1+X_2}=P_{Acirc(X_1,X_2)}=P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$$



          In your question you mix up the two notations, and this can be a source of confusion on its own.





          If $X_1,X_2$ are random variables then so is $X_1+X_2$.



          This with e.g.:$$P_{X_1+X_2}({5})=P(X_1+X_2in{5})=P(X_1+X_2=5)$$



          If moreover $X_1,X_2$ only take integers as value then this can be expanded to:$$cdots=sum_{n,minmathbb Zwedge n+m=5}P(X_1=nwedge X_2=m)$$









          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            On your last point, if $X_{1}, X_{2}$ are considered independent random variables, can I say $sum_{n,m in mathbb Z, n + m =5}P(X_{1}=n)P(X_{2}=m)$
            $endgroup$
            – MinaThuma
            Jan 28 at 17:51












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 28 at 18:57
















          2












          $begingroup$

          If $P$ denotes the probability measure on $(Omega,mathcal F)$ then it induces for every random variable $Z$ a probability measure $P_Z$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ that is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$



          Here ${Zin B}$ abbreviates ${omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B}$ and $P(Zin B)$ abbreviates $P({Zin B})$



          So we have $P_Z(B)=P({Zin B}$ for Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.



          Another notation of this probability is $PZ^{-1}$ prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P(Z^{-1}(B))=P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$



          Observe that $P_Z$ and $PZ^{-1}$ are notations for the same measure.



          Also random vector $(X_1,X_2)$ induces a probability measure.



          This time denoted as $P_{(X_1,X_2)}$ and defined on $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2)$.



          If $A:mathbb R^2tomathbb R$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto x+y$ then $A$ is a Borel-measurable function.



          That means that it can be looked at as a random variable on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$.



          Applying the principle that was mentioned above on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$ we have measure $P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ and it is not difficult to deduce that:$$P_{X_1+X_2}=P_{Acirc(X_1,X_2)}=P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$$



          In your question you mix up the two notations, and this can be a source of confusion on its own.





          If $X_1,X_2$ are random variables then so is $X_1+X_2$.



          This with e.g.:$$P_{X_1+X_2}({5})=P(X_1+X_2in{5})=P(X_1+X_2=5)$$



          If moreover $X_1,X_2$ only take integers as value then this can be expanded to:$$cdots=sum_{n,minmathbb Zwedge n+m=5}P(X_1=nwedge X_2=m)$$









          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            On your last point, if $X_{1}, X_{2}$ are considered independent random variables, can I say $sum_{n,m in mathbb Z, n + m =5}P(X_{1}=n)P(X_{2}=m)$
            $endgroup$
            – MinaThuma
            Jan 28 at 17:51












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 28 at 18:57














          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          If $P$ denotes the probability measure on $(Omega,mathcal F)$ then it induces for every random variable $Z$ a probability measure $P_Z$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ that is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$



          Here ${Zin B}$ abbreviates ${omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B}$ and $P(Zin B)$ abbreviates $P({Zin B})$



          So we have $P_Z(B)=P({Zin B}$ for Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.



          Another notation of this probability is $PZ^{-1}$ prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P(Z^{-1}(B))=P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$



          Observe that $P_Z$ and $PZ^{-1}$ are notations for the same measure.



          Also random vector $(X_1,X_2)$ induces a probability measure.



          This time denoted as $P_{(X_1,X_2)}$ and defined on $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2)$.



          If $A:mathbb R^2tomathbb R$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto x+y$ then $A$ is a Borel-measurable function.



          That means that it can be looked at as a random variable on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$.



          Applying the principle that was mentioned above on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$ we have measure $P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ and it is not difficult to deduce that:$$P_{X_1+X_2}=P_{Acirc(X_1,X_2)}=P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$$



          In your question you mix up the two notations, and this can be a source of confusion on its own.





          If $X_1,X_2$ are random variables then so is $X_1+X_2$.



          This with e.g.:$$P_{X_1+X_2}({5})=P(X_1+X_2in{5})=P(X_1+X_2=5)$$



          If moreover $X_1,X_2$ only take integers as value then this can be expanded to:$$cdots=sum_{n,minmathbb Zwedge n+m=5}P(X_1=nwedge X_2=m)$$









          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          If $P$ denotes the probability measure on $(Omega,mathcal F)$ then it induces for every random variable $Z$ a probability measure $P_Z$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ that is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$



          Here ${Zin B}$ abbreviates ${omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B}$ and $P(Zin B)$ abbreviates $P({Zin B})$



          So we have $P_Z(B)=P({Zin B}$ for Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.



          Another notation of this probability is $PZ^{-1}$ prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P(Z^{-1}(B))=P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$



          Observe that $P_Z$ and $PZ^{-1}$ are notations for the same measure.



          Also random vector $(X_1,X_2)$ induces a probability measure.



          This time denoted as $P_{(X_1,X_2)}$ and defined on $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2)$.



          If $A:mathbb R^2tomathbb R$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto x+y$ then $A$ is a Borel-measurable function.



          That means that it can be looked at as a random variable on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$.



          Applying the principle that was mentioned above on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$ we have measure $P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ and it is not difficult to deduce that:$$P_{X_1+X_2}=P_{Acirc(X_1,X_2)}=P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$$



          In your question you mix up the two notations, and this can be a source of confusion on its own.





          If $X_1,X_2$ are random variables then so is $X_1+X_2$.



          This with e.g.:$$P_{X_1+X_2}({5})=P(X_1+X_2in{5})=P(X_1+X_2=5)$$



          If moreover $X_1,X_2$ only take integers as value then this can be expanded to:$$cdots=sum_{n,minmathbb Zwedge n+m=5}P(X_1=nwedge X_2=m)$$










          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jan 28 at 15:09









          drhabdrhab

          104k545136




          104k545136












          • $begingroup$
            On your last point, if $X_{1}, X_{2}$ are considered independent random variables, can I say $sum_{n,m in mathbb Z, n + m =5}P(X_{1}=n)P(X_{2}=m)$
            $endgroup$
            – MinaThuma
            Jan 28 at 17:51












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 28 at 18:57


















          • $begingroup$
            On your last point, if $X_{1}, X_{2}$ are considered independent random variables, can I say $sum_{n,m in mathbb Z, n + m =5}P(X_{1}=n)P(X_{2}=m)$
            $endgroup$
            – MinaThuma
            Jan 28 at 17:51












          • $begingroup$
            Yes, that is correct.
            $endgroup$
            – drhab
            Jan 28 at 18:57
















          $begingroup$
          On your last point, if $X_{1}, X_{2}$ are considered independent random variables, can I say $sum_{n,m in mathbb Z, n + m =5}P(X_{1}=n)P(X_{2}=m)$
          $endgroup$
          – MinaThuma
          Jan 28 at 17:51






          $begingroup$
          On your last point, if $X_{1}, X_{2}$ are considered independent random variables, can I say $sum_{n,m in mathbb Z, n + m =5}P(X_{1}=n)P(X_{2}=m)$
          $endgroup$
          – MinaThuma
          Jan 28 at 17:51














          $begingroup$
          Yes, that is correct.
          $endgroup$
          – drhab
          Jan 28 at 18:57




          $begingroup$
          Yes, that is correct.
          $endgroup$
          – drhab
          Jan 28 at 18:57


















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