Why is Convolution Well-Defined (Simple Example)
$begingroup$
I am having trouble understanding why convolution is well-defined.
Let's take a simple example:
$(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$ probability space and $X_{1}, X_{2}$ two real random variables where $P(X_{1}=3)=frac{1}{2},P(X_{2}=2)=frac{1}{4}$
And $P(X_{1}=1)=frac{1}{5},P(X_{2}=4)=frac{1}{3}$
Then my understanding of convolution is
$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}$ where $A: X_{1} times X_{2}to mathbb R,A(x_{1},x_{2})=x_{1}+x_{2}$
So surely, if, for instance $X_{1}+X_{2}=5$, I get more than one preimage, and hence how can convolution be well-defined?
In the above case, I would get:
$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(3)P_{X_{2}}(2)=frac{1}{2}timesfrac{1}{4}=frac{1}{8}$ while
$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(1)P_{X_{2}}(4)=frac{1}{5}timesfrac{1}{3}=frac{1}{15}$
I do not know where I am going wrong in my understanding of convolution. Any help is greatly appreciated.
probability probability-theory random-variables convolution
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am having trouble understanding why convolution is well-defined.
Let's take a simple example:
$(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$ probability space and $X_{1}, X_{2}$ two real random variables where $P(X_{1}=3)=frac{1}{2},P(X_{2}=2)=frac{1}{4}$
And $P(X_{1}=1)=frac{1}{5},P(X_{2}=4)=frac{1}{3}$
Then my understanding of convolution is
$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}$ where $A: X_{1} times X_{2}to mathbb R,A(x_{1},x_{2})=x_{1}+x_{2}$
So surely, if, for instance $X_{1}+X_{2}=5$, I get more than one preimage, and hence how can convolution be well-defined?
In the above case, I would get:
$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(3)P_{X_{2}}(2)=frac{1}{2}timesfrac{1}{4}=frac{1}{8}$ while
$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(1)P_{X_{2}}(4)=frac{1}{5}timesfrac{1}{3}=frac{1}{15}$
I do not know where I am going wrong in my understanding of convolution. Any help is greatly appreciated.
probability probability-theory random-variables convolution
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am having trouble understanding why convolution is well-defined.
Let's take a simple example:
$(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$ probability space and $X_{1}, X_{2}$ two real random variables where $P(X_{1}=3)=frac{1}{2},P(X_{2}=2)=frac{1}{4}$
And $P(X_{1}=1)=frac{1}{5},P(X_{2}=4)=frac{1}{3}$
Then my understanding of convolution is
$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}$ where $A: X_{1} times X_{2}to mathbb R,A(x_{1},x_{2})=x_{1}+x_{2}$
So surely, if, for instance $X_{1}+X_{2}=5$, I get more than one preimage, and hence how can convolution be well-defined?
In the above case, I would get:
$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(3)P_{X_{2}}(2)=frac{1}{2}timesfrac{1}{4}=frac{1}{8}$ while
$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(1)P_{X_{2}}(4)=frac{1}{5}timesfrac{1}{3}=frac{1}{15}$
I do not know where I am going wrong in my understanding of convolution. Any help is greatly appreciated.
probability probability-theory random-variables convolution
$endgroup$
I am having trouble understanding why convolution is well-defined.
Let's take a simple example:
$(Omega, mathcal{F}, P)$ probability space and $X_{1}, X_{2}$ two real random variables where $P(X_{1}=3)=frac{1}{2},P(X_{2}=2)=frac{1}{4}$
And $P(X_{1}=1)=frac{1}{5},P(X_{2}=4)=frac{1}{3}$
Then my understanding of convolution is
$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}$ where $A: X_{1} times X_{2}to mathbb R,A(x_{1},x_{2})=x_{1}+x_{2}$
So surely, if, for instance $X_{1}+X_{2}=5$, I get more than one preimage, and hence how can convolution be well-defined?
In the above case, I would get:
$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(3)P_{X_{2}}(2)=frac{1}{2}timesfrac{1}{4}=frac{1}{8}$ while
$P_{X_{1}+X_{2}}circ A^{-1}(5)=P_{X_{1}}(1)P_{X_{2}}(4)=frac{1}{5}timesfrac{1}{3}=frac{1}{15}$
I do not know where I am going wrong in my understanding of convolution. Any help is greatly appreciated.
probability probability-theory random-variables convolution
probability probability-theory random-variables convolution
asked Jan 28 at 14:32
MinaThumaMinaThuma
1968
1968
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
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$begingroup$
If $P$ denotes the probability measure on $(Omega,mathcal F)$ then it induces for every random variable $Z$ a probability measure $P_Z$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ that is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$
Here ${Zin B}$ abbreviates ${omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B}$ and $P(Zin B)$ abbreviates $P({Zin B})$
So we have $P_Z(B)=P({Zin B}$ for Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.
Another notation of this probability is $PZ^{-1}$ prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P(Z^{-1}(B))=P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$
Observe that $P_Z$ and $PZ^{-1}$ are notations for the same measure.
Also random vector $(X_1,X_2)$ induces a probability measure.
This time denoted as $P_{(X_1,X_2)}$ and defined on $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2)$.
If $A:mathbb R^2tomathbb R$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto x+y$ then $A$ is a Borel-measurable function.
That means that it can be looked at as a random variable on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$.
Applying the principle that was mentioned above on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$ we have measure $P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ and it is not difficult to deduce that:$$P_{X_1+X_2}=P_{Acirc(X_1,X_2)}=P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$$
In your question you mix up the two notations, and this can be a source of confusion on its own.
If $X_1,X_2$ are random variables then so is $X_1+X_2$.
This with e.g.:$$P_{X_1+X_2}({5})=P(X_1+X_2in{5})=P(X_1+X_2=5)$$
If moreover $X_1,X_2$ only take integers as value then this can be expanded to:$$cdots=sum_{n,minmathbb Zwedge n+m=5}P(X_1=nwedge X_2=m)$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
On your last point, if $X_{1}, X_{2}$ are considered independent random variables, can I say $sum_{n,m in mathbb Z, n + m =5}P(X_{1}=n)P(X_{2}=m)$
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 28 at 17:51
$begingroup$
Yes, that is correct.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 28 at 18:57
add a comment |
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
If $P$ denotes the probability measure on $(Omega,mathcal F)$ then it induces for every random variable $Z$ a probability measure $P_Z$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ that is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$
Here ${Zin B}$ abbreviates ${omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B}$ and $P(Zin B)$ abbreviates $P({Zin B})$
So we have $P_Z(B)=P({Zin B}$ for Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.
Another notation of this probability is $PZ^{-1}$ prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P(Z^{-1}(B))=P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$
Observe that $P_Z$ and $PZ^{-1}$ are notations for the same measure.
Also random vector $(X_1,X_2)$ induces a probability measure.
This time denoted as $P_{(X_1,X_2)}$ and defined on $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2)$.
If $A:mathbb R^2tomathbb R$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto x+y$ then $A$ is a Borel-measurable function.
That means that it can be looked at as a random variable on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$.
Applying the principle that was mentioned above on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$ we have measure $P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ and it is not difficult to deduce that:$$P_{X_1+X_2}=P_{Acirc(X_1,X_2)}=P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$$
In your question you mix up the two notations, and this can be a source of confusion on its own.
If $X_1,X_2$ are random variables then so is $X_1+X_2$.
This with e.g.:$$P_{X_1+X_2}({5})=P(X_1+X_2in{5})=P(X_1+X_2=5)$$
If moreover $X_1,X_2$ only take integers as value then this can be expanded to:$$cdots=sum_{n,minmathbb Zwedge n+m=5}P(X_1=nwedge X_2=m)$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
On your last point, if $X_{1}, X_{2}$ are considered independent random variables, can I say $sum_{n,m in mathbb Z, n + m =5}P(X_{1}=n)P(X_{2}=m)$
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 28 at 17:51
$begingroup$
Yes, that is correct.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 28 at 18:57
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $P$ denotes the probability measure on $(Omega,mathcal F)$ then it induces for every random variable $Z$ a probability measure $P_Z$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ that is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$
Here ${Zin B}$ abbreviates ${omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B}$ and $P(Zin B)$ abbreviates $P({Zin B})$
So we have $P_Z(B)=P({Zin B}$ for Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.
Another notation of this probability is $PZ^{-1}$ prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P(Z^{-1}(B))=P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$
Observe that $P_Z$ and $PZ^{-1}$ are notations for the same measure.
Also random vector $(X_1,X_2)$ induces a probability measure.
This time denoted as $P_{(X_1,X_2)}$ and defined on $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2)$.
If $A:mathbb R^2tomathbb R$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto x+y$ then $A$ is a Borel-measurable function.
That means that it can be looked at as a random variable on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$.
Applying the principle that was mentioned above on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$ we have measure $P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ and it is not difficult to deduce that:$$P_{X_1+X_2}=P_{Acirc(X_1,X_2)}=P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$$
In your question you mix up the two notations, and this can be a source of confusion on its own.
If $X_1,X_2$ are random variables then so is $X_1+X_2$.
This with e.g.:$$P_{X_1+X_2}({5})=P(X_1+X_2in{5})=P(X_1+X_2=5)$$
If moreover $X_1,X_2$ only take integers as value then this can be expanded to:$$cdots=sum_{n,minmathbb Zwedge n+m=5}P(X_1=nwedge X_2=m)$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
On your last point, if $X_{1}, X_{2}$ are considered independent random variables, can I say $sum_{n,m in mathbb Z, n + m =5}P(X_{1}=n)P(X_{2}=m)$
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 28 at 17:51
$begingroup$
Yes, that is correct.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 28 at 18:57
add a comment |
$begingroup$
If $P$ denotes the probability measure on $(Omega,mathcal F)$ then it induces for every random variable $Z$ a probability measure $P_Z$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ that is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$
Here ${Zin B}$ abbreviates ${omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B}$ and $P(Zin B)$ abbreviates $P({Zin B})$
So we have $P_Z(B)=P({Zin B}$ for Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.
Another notation of this probability is $PZ^{-1}$ prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P(Z^{-1}(B))=P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$
Observe that $P_Z$ and $PZ^{-1}$ are notations for the same measure.
Also random vector $(X_1,X_2)$ induces a probability measure.
This time denoted as $P_{(X_1,X_2)}$ and defined on $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2)$.
If $A:mathbb R^2tomathbb R$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto x+y$ then $A$ is a Borel-measurable function.
That means that it can be looked at as a random variable on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$.
Applying the principle that was mentioned above on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$ we have measure $P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ and it is not difficult to deduce that:$$P_{X_1+X_2}=P_{Acirc(X_1,X_2)}=P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$$
In your question you mix up the two notations, and this can be a source of confusion on its own.
If $X_1,X_2$ are random variables then so is $X_1+X_2$.
This with e.g.:$$P_{X_1+X_2}({5})=P(X_1+X_2in{5})=P(X_1+X_2=5)$$
If moreover $X_1,X_2$ only take integers as value then this can be expanded to:$$cdots=sum_{n,minmathbb Zwedge n+m=5}P(X_1=nwedge X_2=m)$$
$endgroup$
If $P$ denotes the probability measure on $(Omega,mathcal F)$ then it induces for every random variable $Z$ a probability measure $P_Z$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ that is prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$
Here ${Zin B}$ abbreviates ${omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B}$ and $P(Zin B)$ abbreviates $P({Zin B})$
So we have $P_Z(B)=P({Zin B}$ for Borel subsets of $mathbb R$.
Another notation of this probability is $PZ^{-1}$ prescribed by:$$Bmapsto P(Z^{-1}(B))=P({omegainOmegamid Z(omega)in B})=P({Zin B})=P(Zin B)$$
Observe that $P_Z$ and $PZ^{-1}$ are notations for the same measure.
Also random vector $(X_1,X_2)$ induces a probability measure.
This time denoted as $P_{(X_1,X_2)}$ and defined on $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2)$.
If $A:mathbb R^2tomathbb R$ is prescribed by $(x,y)mapsto x+y$ then $A$ is a Borel-measurable function.
That means that it can be looked at as a random variable on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B^2,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$.
Applying the principle that was mentioned above on space $(mathbb R^2,mathcal B,P_{(X_1,X_2)})$ we have measure $P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$ on $(mathbb R,mathcal B)$ and it is not difficult to deduce that:$$P_{X_1+X_2}=P_{Acirc(X_1,X_2)}=P_{(X_1,X_2)}A^{-1}$$
In your question you mix up the two notations, and this can be a source of confusion on its own.
If $X_1,X_2$ are random variables then so is $X_1+X_2$.
This with e.g.:$$P_{X_1+X_2}({5})=P(X_1+X_2in{5})=P(X_1+X_2=5)$$
If moreover $X_1,X_2$ only take integers as value then this can be expanded to:$$cdots=sum_{n,minmathbb Zwedge n+m=5}P(X_1=nwedge X_2=m)$$
answered Jan 28 at 15:09
drhabdrhab
104k545136
104k545136
$begingroup$
On your last point, if $X_{1}, X_{2}$ are considered independent random variables, can I say $sum_{n,m in mathbb Z, n + m =5}P(X_{1}=n)P(X_{2}=m)$
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 28 at 17:51
$begingroup$
Yes, that is correct.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 28 at 18:57
add a comment |
$begingroup$
On your last point, if $X_{1}, X_{2}$ are considered independent random variables, can I say $sum_{n,m in mathbb Z, n + m =5}P(X_{1}=n)P(X_{2}=m)$
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 28 at 17:51
$begingroup$
Yes, that is correct.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 28 at 18:57
$begingroup$
On your last point, if $X_{1}, X_{2}$ are considered independent random variables, can I say $sum_{n,m in mathbb Z, n + m =5}P(X_{1}=n)P(X_{2}=m)$
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 28 at 17:51
$begingroup$
On your last point, if $X_{1}, X_{2}$ are considered independent random variables, can I say $sum_{n,m in mathbb Z, n + m =5}P(X_{1}=n)P(X_{2}=m)$
$endgroup$
– MinaThuma
Jan 28 at 17:51
$begingroup$
Yes, that is correct.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 28 at 18:57
$begingroup$
Yes, that is correct.
$endgroup$
– drhab
Jan 28 at 18:57
add a comment |
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