Problems for a concrete example in representation theory












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I am currently studying representation theory. In my courses notes, I face trouble understanding one step of a concrete example: three masses connected by springs. This is the same approach as in Georgi p27 http://mural.uv.es/rusanra/Lie%20Algebras%20in%20Particle%20Physics%202%C2%AA%20ed%20-%20From%20Isospin%20to%20Unified%20Theories%20(Georgi,%201999).pdf



My problem happen when we have to find the normal modes associated to $D_2$. This point is not fully developped in Georgi. However, in my courses notes, I find this explanation:



"Since $D_6 = D^{def} otimes D_2$ and that $D^{def} = D_1 oplus D_2$, we have
$D_6 = [D_1 oplus D_2] otimes D_2 = (D_2 otimes D_2) oplus (D_2 otimes D_2) = D_2 oplus ( D_2 otimes D_2)$.



We can then see that the direction in $mathbb{R}^3$ invariant under $D^{def}$ tensorized with $mathbb{R}^2$ transforms under $D_2$."



From this fact, he deduce that $(1,0,1,0,1,0)$ for instance must be a normal mode. I understand all of that except the last sentence: Why is this direction transforming like $D_2$ ? ( I guess transforms under ... mean is an invariant subspace under ... ).



Thanks.










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    $begingroup$


    I am currently studying representation theory. In my courses notes, I face trouble understanding one step of a concrete example: three masses connected by springs. This is the same approach as in Georgi p27 http://mural.uv.es/rusanra/Lie%20Algebras%20in%20Particle%20Physics%202%C2%AA%20ed%20-%20From%20Isospin%20to%20Unified%20Theories%20(Georgi,%201999).pdf



    My problem happen when we have to find the normal modes associated to $D_2$. This point is not fully developped in Georgi. However, in my courses notes, I find this explanation:



    "Since $D_6 = D^{def} otimes D_2$ and that $D^{def} = D_1 oplus D_2$, we have
    $D_6 = [D_1 oplus D_2] otimes D_2 = (D_2 otimes D_2) oplus (D_2 otimes D_2) = D_2 oplus ( D_2 otimes D_2)$.



    We can then see that the direction in $mathbb{R}^3$ invariant under $D^{def}$ tensorized with $mathbb{R}^2$ transforms under $D_2$."



    From this fact, he deduce that $(1,0,1,0,1,0)$ for instance must be a normal mode. I understand all of that except the last sentence: Why is this direction transforming like $D_2$ ? ( I guess transforms under ... mean is an invariant subspace under ... ).



    Thanks.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      1












      1








      1





      $begingroup$


      I am currently studying representation theory. In my courses notes, I face trouble understanding one step of a concrete example: three masses connected by springs. This is the same approach as in Georgi p27 http://mural.uv.es/rusanra/Lie%20Algebras%20in%20Particle%20Physics%202%C2%AA%20ed%20-%20From%20Isospin%20to%20Unified%20Theories%20(Georgi,%201999).pdf



      My problem happen when we have to find the normal modes associated to $D_2$. This point is not fully developped in Georgi. However, in my courses notes, I find this explanation:



      "Since $D_6 = D^{def} otimes D_2$ and that $D^{def} = D_1 oplus D_2$, we have
      $D_6 = [D_1 oplus D_2] otimes D_2 = (D_2 otimes D_2) oplus (D_2 otimes D_2) = D_2 oplus ( D_2 otimes D_2)$.



      We can then see that the direction in $mathbb{R}^3$ invariant under $D^{def}$ tensorized with $mathbb{R}^2$ transforms under $D_2$."



      From this fact, he deduce that $(1,0,1,0,1,0)$ for instance must be a normal mode. I understand all of that except the last sentence: Why is this direction transforming like $D_2$ ? ( I guess transforms under ... mean is an invariant subspace under ... ).



      Thanks.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I am currently studying representation theory. In my courses notes, I face trouble understanding one step of a concrete example: three masses connected by springs. This is the same approach as in Georgi p27 http://mural.uv.es/rusanra/Lie%20Algebras%20in%20Particle%20Physics%202%C2%AA%20ed%20-%20From%20Isospin%20to%20Unified%20Theories%20(Georgi,%201999).pdf



      My problem happen when we have to find the normal modes associated to $D_2$. This point is not fully developped in Georgi. However, in my courses notes, I find this explanation:



      "Since $D_6 = D^{def} otimes D_2$ and that $D^{def} = D_1 oplus D_2$, we have
      $D_6 = [D_1 oplus D_2] otimes D_2 = (D_2 otimes D_2) oplus (D_2 otimes D_2) = D_2 oplus ( D_2 otimes D_2)$.



      We can then see that the direction in $mathbb{R}^3$ invariant under $D^{def}$ tensorized with $mathbb{R}^2$ transforms under $D_2$."



      From this fact, he deduce that $(1,0,1,0,1,0)$ for instance must be a normal mode. I understand all of that except the last sentence: Why is this direction transforming like $D_2$ ? ( I guess transforms under ... mean is an invariant subspace under ... ).



      Thanks.







      representation-theory physics






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      asked Jan 25 at 21:30









      thephysics17thephysics17

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