Proof of radius of convergence for geometric series.
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I am just getting into proofs involving a radius of convergence and I am tasked with proving for every $b$ with $0<b<1$ the series $sum_{n=0}^infty x^n$ converges uniformly to $frac{1}{1-x}$ on the interval $[-b,b]$ while working directly with the definition of uniform convergence.
So far I have $lvert f(x) - s_k (x) rvert = lvert frac{1}{1-x}-frac{1-x^{k+1}}{1-x}rvert = lvert frac{x^{k+1}}{1-x}rvert < epsilon$ But now I am stuck as far choosing an $N$ and doing the rest of the proof. If anyone could help me that would be greatly appriciated thank you!
real-analysis power-series uniform-convergence
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I am just getting into proofs involving a radius of convergence and I am tasked with proving for every $b$ with $0<b<1$ the series $sum_{n=0}^infty x^n$ converges uniformly to $frac{1}{1-x}$ on the interval $[-b,b]$ while working directly with the definition of uniform convergence.
So far I have $lvert f(x) - s_k (x) rvert = lvert frac{1}{1-x}-frac{1-x^{k+1}}{1-x}rvert = lvert frac{x^{k+1}}{1-x}rvert < epsilon$ But now I am stuck as far choosing an $N$ and doing the rest of the proof. If anyone could help me that would be greatly appriciated thank you!
real-analysis power-series uniform-convergence
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am just getting into proofs involving a radius of convergence and I am tasked with proving for every $b$ with $0<b<1$ the series $sum_{n=0}^infty x^n$ converges uniformly to $frac{1}{1-x}$ on the interval $[-b,b]$ while working directly with the definition of uniform convergence.
So far I have $lvert f(x) - s_k (x) rvert = lvert frac{1}{1-x}-frac{1-x^{k+1}}{1-x}rvert = lvert frac{x^{k+1}}{1-x}rvert < epsilon$ But now I am stuck as far choosing an $N$ and doing the rest of the proof. If anyone could help me that would be greatly appriciated thank you!
real-analysis power-series uniform-convergence
$endgroup$
I am just getting into proofs involving a radius of convergence and I am tasked with proving for every $b$ with $0<b<1$ the series $sum_{n=0}^infty x^n$ converges uniformly to $frac{1}{1-x}$ on the interval $[-b,b]$ while working directly with the definition of uniform convergence.
So far I have $lvert f(x) - s_k (x) rvert = lvert frac{1}{1-x}-frac{1-x^{k+1}}{1-x}rvert = lvert frac{x^{k+1}}{1-x}rvert < epsilon$ But now I am stuck as far choosing an $N$ and doing the rest of the proof. If anyone could help me that would be greatly appriciated thank you!
real-analysis power-series uniform-convergence
real-analysis power-series uniform-convergence
edited Jan 25 at 19:08


José Carlos Santos
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asked Jan 25 at 19:03
MosephMoseph
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Since, $xin[-b,b]$,$$leftlvertfrac{x^{k+1}}{1-x}rightrvert=frac{lvert xrvert^{k+1}}{lvert1-xrvert}leqslantfrac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}.tag1$$Since $lvert brvert<1$,$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}=0.$$So, given $varepsilon>0$, there is a natural $N$ such that$$kgeqslant Nimpliesfrac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}<varepsilon$$and it now follows from $(1)$ that$$kgeqslant Nimpliesbigl(forall xin[-b,b]bigr):leftlvertfrac{x^{k+1}}{1-x}rightrvert<varepsilon.$$
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I also saw that but I am still confused on where to go from there. The definition of uniform convergence I am given is: Let $f_n (x)$ be a sequence of functions defined on a set $A$ in the reals. Then $f_n (x)$ converges uniformly on $A$ to limit function $f$ defined on $A$ if, for every $epsilon > 0$ there exists an $N$ in the natural numbers such that $lvert f_n (x) - f(x) rvert < epsilon$ whenever $ngeq N$ and $ x in A$
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– Moseph
Jan 25 at 19:37
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I've edited my answer. What do you think now?
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– José Carlos Santos
Jan 25 at 19:41
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1 Answer
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$begingroup$
Since, $xin[-b,b]$,$$leftlvertfrac{x^{k+1}}{1-x}rightrvert=frac{lvert xrvert^{k+1}}{lvert1-xrvert}leqslantfrac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}.tag1$$Since $lvert brvert<1$,$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}=0.$$So, given $varepsilon>0$, there is a natural $N$ such that$$kgeqslant Nimpliesfrac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}<varepsilon$$and it now follows from $(1)$ that$$kgeqslant Nimpliesbigl(forall xin[-b,b]bigr):leftlvertfrac{x^{k+1}}{1-x}rightrvert<varepsilon.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I also saw that but I am still confused on where to go from there. The definition of uniform convergence I am given is: Let $f_n (x)$ be a sequence of functions defined on a set $A$ in the reals. Then $f_n (x)$ converges uniformly on $A$ to limit function $f$ defined on $A$ if, for every $epsilon > 0$ there exists an $N$ in the natural numbers such that $lvert f_n (x) - f(x) rvert < epsilon$ whenever $ngeq N$ and $ x in A$
$endgroup$
– Moseph
Jan 25 at 19:37
$begingroup$
I've edited my answer. What do you think now?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 25 at 19:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since, $xin[-b,b]$,$$leftlvertfrac{x^{k+1}}{1-x}rightrvert=frac{lvert xrvert^{k+1}}{lvert1-xrvert}leqslantfrac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}.tag1$$Since $lvert brvert<1$,$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}=0.$$So, given $varepsilon>0$, there is a natural $N$ such that$$kgeqslant Nimpliesfrac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}<varepsilon$$and it now follows from $(1)$ that$$kgeqslant Nimpliesbigl(forall xin[-b,b]bigr):leftlvertfrac{x^{k+1}}{1-x}rightrvert<varepsilon.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
I also saw that but I am still confused on where to go from there. The definition of uniform convergence I am given is: Let $f_n (x)$ be a sequence of functions defined on a set $A$ in the reals. Then $f_n (x)$ converges uniformly on $A$ to limit function $f$ defined on $A$ if, for every $epsilon > 0$ there exists an $N$ in the natural numbers such that $lvert f_n (x) - f(x) rvert < epsilon$ whenever $ngeq N$ and $ x in A$
$endgroup$
– Moseph
Jan 25 at 19:37
$begingroup$
I've edited my answer. What do you think now?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 25 at 19:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since, $xin[-b,b]$,$$leftlvertfrac{x^{k+1}}{1-x}rightrvert=frac{lvert xrvert^{k+1}}{lvert1-xrvert}leqslantfrac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}.tag1$$Since $lvert brvert<1$,$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}=0.$$So, given $varepsilon>0$, there is a natural $N$ such that$$kgeqslant Nimpliesfrac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}<varepsilon$$and it now follows from $(1)$ that$$kgeqslant Nimpliesbigl(forall xin[-b,b]bigr):leftlvertfrac{x^{k+1}}{1-x}rightrvert<varepsilon.$$
$endgroup$
Since, $xin[-b,b]$,$$leftlvertfrac{x^{k+1}}{1-x}rightrvert=frac{lvert xrvert^{k+1}}{lvert1-xrvert}leqslantfrac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}.tag1$$Since $lvert brvert<1$,$$lim_{ktoinfty}frac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}=0.$$So, given $varepsilon>0$, there is a natural $N$ such that$$kgeqslant Nimpliesfrac{lvert brvert^{k+1}}{1-lvert brvert}<varepsilon$$and it now follows from $(1)$ that$$kgeqslant Nimpliesbigl(forall xin[-b,b]bigr):leftlvertfrac{x^{k+1}}{1-x}rightrvert<varepsilon.$$
edited Jan 25 at 19:40
answered Jan 25 at 19:07


José Carlos SantosJosé Carlos Santos
169k23132237
169k23132237
$begingroup$
I also saw that but I am still confused on where to go from there. The definition of uniform convergence I am given is: Let $f_n (x)$ be a sequence of functions defined on a set $A$ in the reals. Then $f_n (x)$ converges uniformly on $A$ to limit function $f$ defined on $A$ if, for every $epsilon > 0$ there exists an $N$ in the natural numbers such that $lvert f_n (x) - f(x) rvert < epsilon$ whenever $ngeq N$ and $ x in A$
$endgroup$
– Moseph
Jan 25 at 19:37
$begingroup$
I've edited my answer. What do you think now?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 25 at 19:41
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I also saw that but I am still confused on where to go from there. The definition of uniform convergence I am given is: Let $f_n (x)$ be a sequence of functions defined on a set $A$ in the reals. Then $f_n (x)$ converges uniformly on $A$ to limit function $f$ defined on $A$ if, for every $epsilon > 0$ there exists an $N$ in the natural numbers such that $lvert f_n (x) - f(x) rvert < epsilon$ whenever $ngeq N$ and $ x in A$
$endgroup$
– Moseph
Jan 25 at 19:37
$begingroup$
I've edited my answer. What do you think now?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 25 at 19:41
$begingroup$
I also saw that but I am still confused on where to go from there. The definition of uniform convergence I am given is: Let $f_n (x)$ be a sequence of functions defined on a set $A$ in the reals. Then $f_n (x)$ converges uniformly on $A$ to limit function $f$ defined on $A$ if, for every $epsilon > 0$ there exists an $N$ in the natural numbers such that $lvert f_n (x) - f(x) rvert < epsilon$ whenever $ngeq N$ and $ x in A$
$endgroup$
– Moseph
Jan 25 at 19:37
$begingroup$
I also saw that but I am still confused on where to go from there. The definition of uniform convergence I am given is: Let $f_n (x)$ be a sequence of functions defined on a set $A$ in the reals. Then $f_n (x)$ converges uniformly on $A$ to limit function $f$ defined on $A$ if, for every $epsilon > 0$ there exists an $N$ in the natural numbers such that $lvert f_n (x) - f(x) rvert < epsilon$ whenever $ngeq N$ and $ x in A$
$endgroup$
– Moseph
Jan 25 at 19:37
$begingroup$
I've edited my answer. What do you think now?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 25 at 19:41
$begingroup$
I've edited my answer. What do you think now?
$endgroup$
– José Carlos Santos
Jan 25 at 19:41
add a comment |
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