Prove that structure M is not Herbrand structure












0












$begingroup$


I've been trying to solve the following problem, but I get a bit confused with the solution I get.



Here's the problem:
Let's M be a structure with an universe all the terms with no variables. We know that the value of the term f(x) in M given evaluation v is v(x).
Prove that M is not Herbrand structure.



My attempt to prove it:



By definition structure H is Herbrand if for every functional symbol f and elements of the Universe (which contains only terms with no variables)



$t_1, ... , t_n$ we have that $f^H(t_1, ...,t_n)=f(t_1,...,t_n)$
On the other hand we know evaluation functions are functions mapping elements of the Universe to variables.



So
$[![f(x)]!]^Hv=$(by definition of evaluation)$=f^H([![x]!]^Hv)=f^H(v(x))$



On the other hand we want



$f^H(x)=f(x)$ By the definition of Herbrand structure.
So here I get confused by the fact that the evalution v may be such that v(x)=x.
Any suggestions how to prove it?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$

















    0












    $begingroup$


    I've been trying to solve the following problem, but I get a bit confused with the solution I get.



    Here's the problem:
    Let's M be a structure with an universe all the terms with no variables. We know that the value of the term f(x) in M given evaluation v is v(x).
    Prove that M is not Herbrand structure.



    My attempt to prove it:



    By definition structure H is Herbrand if for every functional symbol f and elements of the Universe (which contains only terms with no variables)



    $t_1, ... , t_n$ we have that $f^H(t_1, ...,t_n)=f(t_1,...,t_n)$
    On the other hand we know evaluation functions are functions mapping elements of the Universe to variables.



    So
    $[![f(x)]!]^Hv=$(by definition of evaluation)$=f^H([![x]!]^Hv)=f^H(v(x))$



    On the other hand we want



    $f^H(x)=f(x)$ By the definition of Herbrand structure.
    So here I get confused by the fact that the evalution v may be such that v(x)=x.
    Any suggestions how to prove it?










    share|cite|improve this question











    $endgroup$















      0












      0








      0





      $begingroup$


      I've been trying to solve the following problem, but I get a bit confused with the solution I get.



      Here's the problem:
      Let's M be a structure with an universe all the terms with no variables. We know that the value of the term f(x) in M given evaluation v is v(x).
      Prove that M is not Herbrand structure.



      My attempt to prove it:



      By definition structure H is Herbrand if for every functional symbol f and elements of the Universe (which contains only terms with no variables)



      $t_1, ... , t_n$ we have that $f^H(t_1, ...,t_n)=f(t_1,...,t_n)$
      On the other hand we know evaluation functions are functions mapping elements of the Universe to variables.



      So
      $[![f(x)]!]^Hv=$(by definition of evaluation)$=f^H([![x]!]^Hv)=f^H(v(x))$



      On the other hand we want



      $f^H(x)=f(x)$ By the definition of Herbrand structure.
      So here I get confused by the fact that the evalution v may be such that v(x)=x.
      Any suggestions how to prove it?










      share|cite|improve this question











      $endgroup$




      I've been trying to solve the following problem, but I get a bit confused with the solution I get.



      Here's the problem:
      Let's M be a structure with an universe all the terms with no variables. We know that the value of the term f(x) in M given evaluation v is v(x).
      Prove that M is not Herbrand structure.



      My attempt to prove it:



      By definition structure H is Herbrand if for every functional symbol f and elements of the Universe (which contains only terms with no variables)



      $t_1, ... , t_n$ we have that $f^H(t_1, ...,t_n)=f(t_1,...,t_n)$
      On the other hand we know evaluation functions are functions mapping elements of the Universe to variables.



      So
      $[![f(x)]!]^Hv=$(by definition of evaluation)$=f^H([![x]!]^Hv)=f^H(v(x))$



      On the other hand we want



      $f^H(x)=f(x)$ By the definition of Herbrand structure.
      So here I get confused by the fact that the evalution v may be such that v(x)=x.
      Any suggestions how to prove it?







      logic first-order-logic predicate-logic






      share|cite|improve this question















      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jan 28 at 10:42









      Mauro ALLEGRANZA

      67.5k449117




      67.5k449117










      asked Jan 28 at 10:13









      ZarrieZarrie

      103




      103






















          1 Answer
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          0












          $begingroup$

          Let $S$ be a set of formulas (more exactly : clauses).



          Let $H$ the Herbrand universe of $S$ (the domain of all ground (i.e. closed) terms) and $I$ an interpretation of $S$ over $H$.



          In order that $I$ is an Herbrand model of $S$ we need that :




          1) $I$ maps all constants in $S$ to themselves;



          2) If $f$ is an $n$-place function symbol and $h_1, ldots, h_n$ are elements of $H$, then $I$ must assign to $f$ a function $f^{H}$ that maps $(h_1, ldots, h_n)$ to
          $f^H(h_1, ldots, h_n)$ (an element of $H$).




          But the variable $x$ is not in the Herbrand universe $H$, because it is not a closed term.



          Thus, $v(x)$ is an element of the domain $D$ of the structure $mathcal M$, and again $v(x)$ is not an element of $H$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Clear and simple explanation!
            $endgroup$
            – Zarrie
            Jan 28 at 11:03










          • $begingroup$
            @Zarrie - you are welcome :-)
            $endgroup$
            – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
            Jan 28 at 11:41











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          1 Answer
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          active

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes









          0












          $begingroup$

          Let $S$ be a set of formulas (more exactly : clauses).



          Let $H$ the Herbrand universe of $S$ (the domain of all ground (i.e. closed) terms) and $I$ an interpretation of $S$ over $H$.



          In order that $I$ is an Herbrand model of $S$ we need that :




          1) $I$ maps all constants in $S$ to themselves;



          2) If $f$ is an $n$-place function symbol and $h_1, ldots, h_n$ are elements of $H$, then $I$ must assign to $f$ a function $f^{H}$ that maps $(h_1, ldots, h_n)$ to
          $f^H(h_1, ldots, h_n)$ (an element of $H$).




          But the variable $x$ is not in the Herbrand universe $H$, because it is not a closed term.



          Thus, $v(x)$ is an element of the domain $D$ of the structure $mathcal M$, and again $v(x)$ is not an element of $H$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Clear and simple explanation!
            $endgroup$
            – Zarrie
            Jan 28 at 11:03










          • $begingroup$
            @Zarrie - you are welcome :-)
            $endgroup$
            – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
            Jan 28 at 11:41
















          0












          $begingroup$

          Let $S$ be a set of formulas (more exactly : clauses).



          Let $H$ the Herbrand universe of $S$ (the domain of all ground (i.e. closed) terms) and $I$ an interpretation of $S$ over $H$.



          In order that $I$ is an Herbrand model of $S$ we need that :




          1) $I$ maps all constants in $S$ to themselves;



          2) If $f$ is an $n$-place function symbol and $h_1, ldots, h_n$ are elements of $H$, then $I$ must assign to $f$ a function $f^{H}$ that maps $(h_1, ldots, h_n)$ to
          $f^H(h_1, ldots, h_n)$ (an element of $H$).




          But the variable $x$ is not in the Herbrand universe $H$, because it is not a closed term.



          Thus, $v(x)$ is an element of the domain $D$ of the structure $mathcal M$, and again $v(x)$ is not an element of $H$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$













          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Clear and simple explanation!
            $endgroup$
            – Zarrie
            Jan 28 at 11:03










          • $begingroup$
            @Zarrie - you are welcome :-)
            $endgroup$
            – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
            Jan 28 at 11:41














          0












          0








          0





          $begingroup$

          Let $S$ be a set of formulas (more exactly : clauses).



          Let $H$ the Herbrand universe of $S$ (the domain of all ground (i.e. closed) terms) and $I$ an interpretation of $S$ over $H$.



          In order that $I$ is an Herbrand model of $S$ we need that :




          1) $I$ maps all constants in $S$ to themselves;



          2) If $f$ is an $n$-place function symbol and $h_1, ldots, h_n$ are elements of $H$, then $I$ must assign to $f$ a function $f^{H}$ that maps $(h_1, ldots, h_n)$ to
          $f^H(h_1, ldots, h_n)$ (an element of $H$).




          But the variable $x$ is not in the Herbrand universe $H$, because it is not a closed term.



          Thus, $v(x)$ is an element of the domain $D$ of the structure $mathcal M$, and again $v(x)$ is not an element of $H$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Let $S$ be a set of formulas (more exactly : clauses).



          Let $H$ the Herbrand universe of $S$ (the domain of all ground (i.e. closed) terms) and $I$ an interpretation of $S$ over $H$.



          In order that $I$ is an Herbrand model of $S$ we need that :




          1) $I$ maps all constants in $S$ to themselves;



          2) If $f$ is an $n$-place function symbol and $h_1, ldots, h_n$ are elements of $H$, then $I$ must assign to $f$ a function $f^{H}$ that maps $(h_1, ldots, h_n)$ to
          $f^H(h_1, ldots, h_n)$ (an element of $H$).




          But the variable $x$ is not in the Herbrand universe $H$, because it is not a closed term.



          Thus, $v(x)$ is an element of the domain $D$ of the structure $mathcal M$, and again $v(x)$ is not an element of $H$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 28 at 10:50

























          answered Jan 28 at 10:41









          Mauro ALLEGRANZAMauro ALLEGRANZA

          67.5k449117




          67.5k449117












          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Clear and simple explanation!
            $endgroup$
            – Zarrie
            Jan 28 at 11:03










          • $begingroup$
            @Zarrie - you are welcome :-)
            $endgroup$
            – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
            Jan 28 at 11:41


















          • $begingroup$
            Thank you! Clear and simple explanation!
            $endgroup$
            – Zarrie
            Jan 28 at 11:03










          • $begingroup$
            @Zarrie - you are welcome :-)
            $endgroup$
            – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
            Jan 28 at 11:41
















          $begingroup$
          Thank you! Clear and simple explanation!
          $endgroup$
          – Zarrie
          Jan 28 at 11:03




          $begingroup$
          Thank you! Clear and simple explanation!
          $endgroup$
          – Zarrie
          Jan 28 at 11:03












          $begingroup$
          @Zarrie - you are welcome :-)
          $endgroup$
          – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
          Jan 28 at 11:41




          $begingroup$
          @Zarrie - you are welcome :-)
          $endgroup$
          – Mauro ALLEGRANZA
          Jan 28 at 11:41


















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