A subgroup $H$ of $G$ must contain the identity from $G$
$begingroup$
I was given the following definition of a subgroup: Let $G$ be a group and let $H$ be a subset of $G$. We say that $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ if $H$ is a group under the same operation from $G$.
I was told that this easily implies that the identity from $G$ must also be in $H$, but I can't see this. I get that the subset must then be closed on the same operation. I get that the operation is associative. I get that there must be some identity, but I can't see how the identity in $H$ must be the same as the identity in $G$.
abstract-algebra group-theory definition
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I was given the following definition of a subgroup: Let $G$ be a group and let $H$ be a subset of $G$. We say that $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ if $H$ is a group under the same operation from $G$.
I was told that this easily implies that the identity from $G$ must also be in $H$, but I can't see this. I get that the subset must then be closed on the same operation. I get that the operation is associative. I get that there must be some identity, but I can't see how the identity in $H$ must be the same as the identity in $G$.
abstract-algebra group-theory definition
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I was given the following definition of a subgroup: Let $G$ be a group and let $H$ be a subset of $G$. We say that $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ if $H$ is a group under the same operation from $G$.
I was told that this easily implies that the identity from $G$ must also be in $H$, but I can't see this. I get that the subset must then be closed on the same operation. I get that the operation is associative. I get that there must be some identity, but I can't see how the identity in $H$ must be the same as the identity in $G$.
abstract-algebra group-theory definition
$endgroup$
I was given the following definition of a subgroup: Let $G$ be a group and let $H$ be a subset of $G$. We say that $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ if $H$ is a group under the same operation from $G$.
I was told that this easily implies that the identity from $G$ must also be in $H$, but I can't see this. I get that the subset must then be closed on the same operation. I get that the operation is associative. I get that there must be some identity, but I can't see how the identity in $H$ must be the same as the identity in $G$.
abstract-algebra group-theory definition
abstract-algebra group-theory definition
asked Jan 29 at 15:11
John DoeJohn Doe
25121346
25121346
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Assume $e_H$ is an identity in $H.$ Then $e_H*e_H=e_H.$ Multiplying both sides with the inverse of $e_H$ in $G$ we get $e_H=e_G,$ where $e_G$ is the identity in $H.$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Nice way of seeing it.
$endgroup$
– John Doe
Jan 29 at 15:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since $H$ is not empty, $hin H$; now $hh^{-1}=1_H=1_G$.
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
Hmm, I think there is a problem in this answer. How do you know that $h^{-1}$ is in $H$?
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 29 at 15:18
$begingroup$
Seems like missing the point. Since $H$ is a group it has an identity - the question is why $1_h=1_G$. Not that that's hard, of course...
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 29 at 15:19
2
$begingroup$
@Mark $H$ is a subgroup, so we know inverses in $H$ exist, but we don't know a priori that the inverse of $h$ in $H$ is the same as the inverse of $h$ in $G$.
$endgroup$
– kccu
Jan 29 at 15:20
1
$begingroup$
@kccu, yes, this is exactly what I wrote in the comment. $h^{-1}$ is the inverse of $h$ in $G$. It is not that trivial that it equals to the inverse in $H$. (easy to prove that, but it still has to be proved)
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 29 at 15:21
$begingroup$
I think that for $h$ having an inverse you should first show that $e$ is in $H$ or assume since it is a group not the other way around.
$endgroup$
– Dani
Jan 29 at 15:24
add a comment |
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Assume $e_H$ is an identity in $H.$ Then $e_H*e_H=e_H.$ Multiplying both sides with the inverse of $e_H$ in $G$ we get $e_H=e_G,$ where $e_G$ is the identity in $H.$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Nice way of seeing it.
$endgroup$
– John Doe
Jan 29 at 15:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Assume $e_H$ is an identity in $H.$ Then $e_H*e_H=e_H.$ Multiplying both sides with the inverse of $e_H$ in $G$ we get $e_H=e_G,$ where $e_G$ is the identity in $H.$
$endgroup$
1
$begingroup$
Nice way of seeing it.
$endgroup$
– John Doe
Jan 29 at 15:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Assume $e_H$ is an identity in $H.$ Then $e_H*e_H=e_H.$ Multiplying both sides with the inverse of $e_H$ in $G$ we get $e_H=e_G,$ where $e_G$ is the identity in $H.$
$endgroup$
Assume $e_H$ is an identity in $H.$ Then $e_H*e_H=e_H.$ Multiplying both sides with the inverse of $e_H$ in $G$ we get $e_H=e_G,$ where $e_G$ is the identity in $H.$
edited Jan 29 at 15:18
kccu
10.8k11229
10.8k11229
answered Jan 29 at 15:14
Reiner MartinReiner Martin
3,509414
3,509414
1
$begingroup$
Nice way of seeing it.
$endgroup$
– John Doe
Jan 29 at 15:17
add a comment |
1
$begingroup$
Nice way of seeing it.
$endgroup$
– John Doe
Jan 29 at 15:17
1
1
$begingroup$
Nice way of seeing it.
$endgroup$
– John Doe
Jan 29 at 15:17
$begingroup$
Nice way of seeing it.
$endgroup$
– John Doe
Jan 29 at 15:17
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since $H$ is not empty, $hin H$; now $hh^{-1}=1_H=1_G$.
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
Hmm, I think there is a problem in this answer. How do you know that $h^{-1}$ is in $H$?
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 29 at 15:18
$begingroup$
Seems like missing the point. Since $H$ is a group it has an identity - the question is why $1_h=1_G$. Not that that's hard, of course...
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 29 at 15:19
2
$begingroup$
@Mark $H$ is a subgroup, so we know inverses in $H$ exist, but we don't know a priori that the inverse of $h$ in $H$ is the same as the inverse of $h$ in $G$.
$endgroup$
– kccu
Jan 29 at 15:20
1
$begingroup$
@kccu, yes, this is exactly what I wrote in the comment. $h^{-1}$ is the inverse of $h$ in $G$. It is not that trivial that it equals to the inverse in $H$. (easy to prove that, but it still has to be proved)
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 29 at 15:21
$begingroup$
I think that for $h$ having an inverse you should first show that $e$ is in $H$ or assume since it is a group not the other way around.
$endgroup$
– Dani
Jan 29 at 15:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since $H$ is not empty, $hin H$; now $hh^{-1}=1_H=1_G$.
$endgroup$
3
$begingroup$
Hmm, I think there is a problem in this answer. How do you know that $h^{-1}$ is in $H$?
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 29 at 15:18
$begingroup$
Seems like missing the point. Since $H$ is a group it has an identity - the question is why $1_h=1_G$. Not that that's hard, of course...
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 29 at 15:19
2
$begingroup$
@Mark $H$ is a subgroup, so we know inverses in $H$ exist, but we don't know a priori that the inverse of $h$ in $H$ is the same as the inverse of $h$ in $G$.
$endgroup$
– kccu
Jan 29 at 15:20
1
$begingroup$
@kccu, yes, this is exactly what I wrote in the comment. $h^{-1}$ is the inverse of $h$ in $G$. It is not that trivial that it equals to the inverse in $H$. (easy to prove that, but it still has to be proved)
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 29 at 15:21
$begingroup$
I think that for $h$ having an inverse you should first show that $e$ is in $H$ or assume since it is a group not the other way around.
$endgroup$
– Dani
Jan 29 at 15:24
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Since $H$ is not empty, $hin H$; now $hh^{-1}=1_H=1_G$.
$endgroup$
Since $H$ is not empty, $hin H$; now $hh^{-1}=1_H=1_G$.
edited Jan 29 at 17:44
Shaun
9,870113684
9,870113684
answered Jan 29 at 15:12
Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide
60.1k11446
60.1k11446
3
$begingroup$
Hmm, I think there is a problem in this answer. How do you know that $h^{-1}$ is in $H$?
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 29 at 15:18
$begingroup$
Seems like missing the point. Since $H$ is a group it has an identity - the question is why $1_h=1_G$. Not that that's hard, of course...
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 29 at 15:19
2
$begingroup$
@Mark $H$ is a subgroup, so we know inverses in $H$ exist, but we don't know a priori that the inverse of $h$ in $H$ is the same as the inverse of $h$ in $G$.
$endgroup$
– kccu
Jan 29 at 15:20
1
$begingroup$
@kccu, yes, this is exactly what I wrote in the comment. $h^{-1}$ is the inverse of $h$ in $G$. It is not that trivial that it equals to the inverse in $H$. (easy to prove that, but it still has to be proved)
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 29 at 15:21
$begingroup$
I think that for $h$ having an inverse you should first show that $e$ is in $H$ or assume since it is a group not the other way around.
$endgroup$
– Dani
Jan 29 at 15:24
add a comment |
3
$begingroup$
Hmm, I think there is a problem in this answer. How do you know that $h^{-1}$ is in $H$?
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 29 at 15:18
$begingroup$
Seems like missing the point. Since $H$ is a group it has an identity - the question is why $1_h=1_G$. Not that that's hard, of course...
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 29 at 15:19
2
$begingroup$
@Mark $H$ is a subgroup, so we know inverses in $H$ exist, but we don't know a priori that the inverse of $h$ in $H$ is the same as the inverse of $h$ in $G$.
$endgroup$
– kccu
Jan 29 at 15:20
1
$begingroup$
@kccu, yes, this is exactly what I wrote in the comment. $h^{-1}$ is the inverse of $h$ in $G$. It is not that trivial that it equals to the inverse in $H$. (easy to prove that, but it still has to be proved)
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 29 at 15:21
$begingroup$
I think that for $h$ having an inverse you should first show that $e$ is in $H$ or assume since it is a group not the other way around.
$endgroup$
– Dani
Jan 29 at 15:24
3
3
$begingroup$
Hmm, I think there is a problem in this answer. How do you know that $h^{-1}$ is in $H$?
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 29 at 15:18
$begingroup$
Hmm, I think there is a problem in this answer. How do you know that $h^{-1}$ is in $H$?
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 29 at 15:18
$begingroup$
Seems like missing the point. Since $H$ is a group it has an identity - the question is why $1_h=1_G$. Not that that's hard, of course...
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 29 at 15:19
$begingroup$
Seems like missing the point. Since $H$ is a group it has an identity - the question is why $1_h=1_G$. Not that that's hard, of course...
$endgroup$
– David C. Ullrich
Jan 29 at 15:19
2
2
$begingroup$
@Mark $H$ is a subgroup, so we know inverses in $H$ exist, but we don't know a priori that the inverse of $h$ in $H$ is the same as the inverse of $h$ in $G$.
$endgroup$
– kccu
Jan 29 at 15:20
$begingroup$
@Mark $H$ is a subgroup, so we know inverses in $H$ exist, but we don't know a priori that the inverse of $h$ in $H$ is the same as the inverse of $h$ in $G$.
$endgroup$
– kccu
Jan 29 at 15:20
1
1
$begingroup$
@kccu, yes, this is exactly what I wrote in the comment. $h^{-1}$ is the inverse of $h$ in $G$. It is not that trivial that it equals to the inverse in $H$. (easy to prove that, but it still has to be proved)
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 29 at 15:21
$begingroup$
@kccu, yes, this is exactly what I wrote in the comment. $h^{-1}$ is the inverse of $h$ in $G$. It is not that trivial that it equals to the inverse in $H$. (easy to prove that, but it still has to be proved)
$endgroup$
– Mark
Jan 29 at 15:21
$begingroup$
I think that for $h$ having an inverse you should first show that $e$ is in $H$ or assume since it is a group not the other way around.
$endgroup$
– Dani
Jan 29 at 15:24
$begingroup$
I think that for $h$ having an inverse you should first show that $e$ is in $H$ or assume since it is a group not the other way around.
$endgroup$
– Dani
Jan 29 at 15:24
add a comment |
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