A subgroup $H$ of $G$ must contain the identity from $G$












2












$begingroup$


I was given the following definition of a subgroup: Let $G$ be a group and let $H$ be a subset of $G$. We say that $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ if $H$ is a group under the same operation from $G$.



I was told that this easily implies that the identity from $G$ must also be in $H$, but I can't see this. I get that the subset must then be closed on the same operation. I get that the operation is associative. I get that there must be some identity, but I can't see how the identity in $H$ must be the same as the identity in $G$.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$

















    2












    $begingroup$


    I was given the following definition of a subgroup: Let $G$ be a group and let $H$ be a subset of $G$. We say that $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ if $H$ is a group under the same operation from $G$.



    I was told that this easily implies that the identity from $G$ must also be in $H$, but I can't see this. I get that the subset must then be closed on the same operation. I get that the operation is associative. I get that there must be some identity, but I can't see how the identity in $H$ must be the same as the identity in $G$.










    share|cite|improve this question









    $endgroup$















      2












      2








      2





      $begingroup$


      I was given the following definition of a subgroup: Let $G$ be a group and let $H$ be a subset of $G$. We say that $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ if $H$ is a group under the same operation from $G$.



      I was told that this easily implies that the identity from $G$ must also be in $H$, but I can't see this. I get that the subset must then be closed on the same operation. I get that the operation is associative. I get that there must be some identity, but I can't see how the identity in $H$ must be the same as the identity in $G$.










      share|cite|improve this question









      $endgroup$




      I was given the following definition of a subgroup: Let $G$ be a group and let $H$ be a subset of $G$. We say that $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ if $H$ is a group under the same operation from $G$.



      I was told that this easily implies that the identity from $G$ must also be in $H$, but I can't see this. I get that the subset must then be closed on the same operation. I get that the operation is associative. I get that there must be some identity, but I can't see how the identity in $H$ must be the same as the identity in $G$.







      abstract-algebra group-theory definition






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      asked Jan 29 at 15:11









      John DoeJohn Doe

      25121346




      25121346






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

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          9












          $begingroup$

          Assume $e_H$ is an identity in $H.$ Then $e_H*e_H=e_H.$ Multiplying both sides with the inverse of $e_H$ in $G$ we get $e_H=e_G,$ where $e_G$ is the identity in $H.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Nice way of seeing it.
            $endgroup$
            – John Doe
            Jan 29 at 15:17



















          1












          $begingroup$

          Since $H$ is not empty, $hin H$; now $hh^{-1}=1_H=1_G$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 3




            $begingroup$
            Hmm, I think there is a problem in this answer. How do you know that $h^{-1}$ is in $H$?
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            Jan 29 at 15:18










          • $begingroup$
            Seems like missing the point. Since $H$ is a group it has an identity - the question is why $1_h=1_G$. Not that that's hard, of course...
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            Jan 29 at 15:19






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @Mark $H$ is a subgroup, so we know inverses in $H$ exist, but we don't know a priori that the inverse of $h$ in $H$ is the same as the inverse of $h$ in $G$.
            $endgroup$
            – kccu
            Jan 29 at 15:20






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @kccu, yes, this is exactly what I wrote in the comment. $h^{-1}$ is the inverse of $h$ in $G$. It is not that trivial that it equals to the inverse in $H$. (easy to prove that, but it still has to be proved)
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            Jan 29 at 15:21












          • $begingroup$
            I think that for $h$ having an inverse you should first show that $e$ is in $H$ or assume since it is a group not the other way around.
            $endgroup$
            – Dani
            Jan 29 at 15:24














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          2 Answers
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          active

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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          9












          $begingroup$

          Assume $e_H$ is an identity in $H.$ Then $e_H*e_H=e_H.$ Multiplying both sides with the inverse of $e_H$ in $G$ we get $e_H=e_G,$ where $e_G$ is the identity in $H.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Nice way of seeing it.
            $endgroup$
            – John Doe
            Jan 29 at 15:17
















          9












          $begingroup$

          Assume $e_H$ is an identity in $H.$ Then $e_H*e_H=e_H.$ Multiplying both sides with the inverse of $e_H$ in $G$ we get $e_H=e_G,$ where $e_G$ is the identity in $H.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Nice way of seeing it.
            $endgroup$
            – John Doe
            Jan 29 at 15:17














          9












          9








          9





          $begingroup$

          Assume $e_H$ is an identity in $H.$ Then $e_H*e_H=e_H.$ Multiplying both sides with the inverse of $e_H$ in $G$ we get $e_H=e_G,$ where $e_G$ is the identity in $H.$






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Assume $e_H$ is an identity in $H.$ Then $e_H*e_H=e_H.$ Multiplying both sides with the inverse of $e_H$ in $G$ we get $e_H=e_G,$ where $e_G$ is the identity in $H.$







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 29 at 15:18









          kccu

          10.8k11229




          10.8k11229










          answered Jan 29 at 15:14









          Reiner MartinReiner Martin

          3,509414




          3,509414








          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Nice way of seeing it.
            $endgroup$
            – John Doe
            Jan 29 at 15:17














          • 1




            $begingroup$
            Nice way of seeing it.
            $endgroup$
            – John Doe
            Jan 29 at 15:17








          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          Nice way of seeing it.
          $endgroup$
          – John Doe
          Jan 29 at 15:17




          $begingroup$
          Nice way of seeing it.
          $endgroup$
          – John Doe
          Jan 29 at 15:17











          1












          $begingroup$

          Since $H$ is not empty, $hin H$; now $hh^{-1}=1_H=1_G$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 3




            $begingroup$
            Hmm, I think there is a problem in this answer. How do you know that $h^{-1}$ is in $H$?
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            Jan 29 at 15:18










          • $begingroup$
            Seems like missing the point. Since $H$ is a group it has an identity - the question is why $1_h=1_G$. Not that that's hard, of course...
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            Jan 29 at 15:19






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @Mark $H$ is a subgroup, so we know inverses in $H$ exist, but we don't know a priori that the inverse of $h$ in $H$ is the same as the inverse of $h$ in $G$.
            $endgroup$
            – kccu
            Jan 29 at 15:20






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @kccu, yes, this is exactly what I wrote in the comment. $h^{-1}$ is the inverse of $h$ in $G$. It is not that trivial that it equals to the inverse in $H$. (easy to prove that, but it still has to be proved)
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            Jan 29 at 15:21












          • $begingroup$
            I think that for $h$ having an inverse you should first show that $e$ is in $H$ or assume since it is a group not the other way around.
            $endgroup$
            – Dani
            Jan 29 at 15:24


















          1












          $begingroup$

          Since $H$ is not empty, $hin H$; now $hh^{-1}=1_H=1_G$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$









          • 3




            $begingroup$
            Hmm, I think there is a problem in this answer. How do you know that $h^{-1}$ is in $H$?
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            Jan 29 at 15:18










          • $begingroup$
            Seems like missing the point. Since $H$ is a group it has an identity - the question is why $1_h=1_G$. Not that that's hard, of course...
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            Jan 29 at 15:19






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @Mark $H$ is a subgroup, so we know inverses in $H$ exist, but we don't know a priori that the inverse of $h$ in $H$ is the same as the inverse of $h$ in $G$.
            $endgroup$
            – kccu
            Jan 29 at 15:20






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @kccu, yes, this is exactly what I wrote in the comment. $h^{-1}$ is the inverse of $h$ in $G$. It is not that trivial that it equals to the inverse in $H$. (easy to prove that, but it still has to be proved)
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            Jan 29 at 15:21












          • $begingroup$
            I think that for $h$ having an inverse you should first show that $e$ is in $H$ or assume since it is a group not the other way around.
            $endgroup$
            – Dani
            Jan 29 at 15:24
















          1












          1








          1





          $begingroup$

          Since $H$ is not empty, $hin H$; now $hh^{-1}=1_H=1_G$.






          share|cite|improve this answer











          $endgroup$



          Since $H$ is not empty, $hin H$; now $hh^{-1}=1_H=1_G$.







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jan 29 at 17:44









          Shaun

          9,870113684




          9,870113684










          answered Jan 29 at 15:12









          Tsemo AristideTsemo Aristide

          60.1k11446




          60.1k11446








          • 3




            $begingroup$
            Hmm, I think there is a problem in this answer. How do you know that $h^{-1}$ is in $H$?
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            Jan 29 at 15:18










          • $begingroup$
            Seems like missing the point. Since $H$ is a group it has an identity - the question is why $1_h=1_G$. Not that that's hard, of course...
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            Jan 29 at 15:19






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @Mark $H$ is a subgroup, so we know inverses in $H$ exist, but we don't know a priori that the inverse of $h$ in $H$ is the same as the inverse of $h$ in $G$.
            $endgroup$
            – kccu
            Jan 29 at 15:20






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @kccu, yes, this is exactly what I wrote in the comment. $h^{-1}$ is the inverse of $h$ in $G$. It is not that trivial that it equals to the inverse in $H$. (easy to prove that, but it still has to be proved)
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            Jan 29 at 15:21












          • $begingroup$
            I think that for $h$ having an inverse you should first show that $e$ is in $H$ or assume since it is a group not the other way around.
            $endgroup$
            – Dani
            Jan 29 at 15:24
















          • 3




            $begingroup$
            Hmm, I think there is a problem in this answer. How do you know that $h^{-1}$ is in $H$?
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            Jan 29 at 15:18










          • $begingroup$
            Seems like missing the point. Since $H$ is a group it has an identity - the question is why $1_h=1_G$. Not that that's hard, of course...
            $endgroup$
            – David C. Ullrich
            Jan 29 at 15:19






          • 2




            $begingroup$
            @Mark $H$ is a subgroup, so we know inverses in $H$ exist, but we don't know a priori that the inverse of $h$ in $H$ is the same as the inverse of $h$ in $G$.
            $endgroup$
            – kccu
            Jan 29 at 15:20






          • 1




            $begingroup$
            @kccu, yes, this is exactly what I wrote in the comment. $h^{-1}$ is the inverse of $h$ in $G$. It is not that trivial that it equals to the inverse in $H$. (easy to prove that, but it still has to be proved)
            $endgroup$
            – Mark
            Jan 29 at 15:21












          • $begingroup$
            I think that for $h$ having an inverse you should first show that $e$ is in $H$ or assume since it is a group not the other way around.
            $endgroup$
            – Dani
            Jan 29 at 15:24










          3




          3




          $begingroup$
          Hmm, I think there is a problem in this answer. How do you know that $h^{-1}$ is in $H$?
          $endgroup$
          – Mark
          Jan 29 at 15:18




          $begingroup$
          Hmm, I think there is a problem in this answer. How do you know that $h^{-1}$ is in $H$?
          $endgroup$
          – Mark
          Jan 29 at 15:18












          $begingroup$
          Seems like missing the point. Since $H$ is a group it has an identity - the question is why $1_h=1_G$. Not that that's hard, of course...
          $endgroup$
          – David C. Ullrich
          Jan 29 at 15:19




          $begingroup$
          Seems like missing the point. Since $H$ is a group it has an identity - the question is why $1_h=1_G$. Not that that's hard, of course...
          $endgroup$
          – David C. Ullrich
          Jan 29 at 15:19




          2




          2




          $begingroup$
          @Mark $H$ is a subgroup, so we know inverses in $H$ exist, but we don't know a priori that the inverse of $h$ in $H$ is the same as the inverse of $h$ in $G$.
          $endgroup$
          – kccu
          Jan 29 at 15:20




          $begingroup$
          @Mark $H$ is a subgroup, so we know inverses in $H$ exist, but we don't know a priori that the inverse of $h$ in $H$ is the same as the inverse of $h$ in $G$.
          $endgroup$
          – kccu
          Jan 29 at 15:20




          1




          1




          $begingroup$
          @kccu, yes, this is exactly what I wrote in the comment. $h^{-1}$ is the inverse of $h$ in $G$. It is not that trivial that it equals to the inverse in $H$. (easy to prove that, but it still has to be proved)
          $endgroup$
          – Mark
          Jan 29 at 15:21






          $begingroup$
          @kccu, yes, this is exactly what I wrote in the comment. $h^{-1}$ is the inverse of $h$ in $G$. It is not that trivial that it equals to the inverse in $H$. (easy to prove that, but it still has to be proved)
          $endgroup$
          – Mark
          Jan 29 at 15:21














          $begingroup$
          I think that for $h$ having an inverse you should first show that $e$ is in $H$ or assume since it is a group not the other way around.
          $endgroup$
          – Dani
          Jan 29 at 15:24






          $begingroup$
          I think that for $h$ having an inverse you should first show that $e$ is in $H$ or assume since it is a group not the other way around.
          $endgroup$
          – Dani
          Jan 29 at 15:24




















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