Square root of fractional part integral












2












$begingroup$


Does the following integral have a closed form ?
$$int_{0}^{1}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}dx$$



Where ${x}$ denotes the fractional part of $x$.










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  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Have you tried any methods of evaluating it? Perhaps in series form?
    $endgroup$
    – B. Mehta
    Jul 19 '18 at 16:31
















2












$begingroup$


Does the following integral have a closed form ?
$$int_{0}^{1}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}dx$$



Where ${x}$ denotes the fractional part of $x$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Have you tried any methods of evaluating it? Perhaps in series form?
    $endgroup$
    – B. Mehta
    Jul 19 '18 at 16:31














2












2








2





$begingroup$


Does the following integral have a closed form ?
$$int_{0}^{1}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}dx$$



Where ${x}$ denotes the fractional part of $x$.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Does the following integral have a closed form ?
$$int_{0}^{1}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}dx$$



Where ${x}$ denotes the fractional part of $x$.







integration zeta-functions fractional-part






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share|cite|improve this question













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edited Jan 29 at 17:38









YuiTo Cheng

2,1863937




2,1863937










asked Jul 19 '18 at 16:26









Kays Tomy Kays Tomy

19717




19717








  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Have you tried any methods of evaluating it? Perhaps in series form?
    $endgroup$
    – B. Mehta
    Jul 19 '18 at 16:31














  • 6




    $begingroup$
    Have you tried any methods of evaluating it? Perhaps in series form?
    $endgroup$
    – B. Mehta
    Jul 19 '18 at 16:31








6




6




$begingroup$
Have you tried any methods of evaluating it? Perhaps in series form?
$endgroup$
– B. Mehta
Jul 19 '18 at 16:31




$begingroup$
Have you tried any methods of evaluating it? Perhaps in series form?
$endgroup$
– B. Mehta
Jul 19 '18 at 16:31










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes


















4












$begingroup$

Due to the complexity of the computation (see other answers), we consider integrating $x,dy$ instead of $y,dx$.



The function has discontinuities at every $x=dfrac1n$, which are jumps from $y=0$ to $y=1$. We can invert the function between $dfrac1{n+1}$ and $dfrac1n$ using



$$y=sqrt{frac1x-n}iff x=frac1{y^2+n}.$$



From this, the area under a tooth is given by



$$I_n=int_0^1frac{dy}{y^2+n}-frac1{n+1}=frac1{sqrt n}arctanfrac1{sqrt n}-frac1{n+1}.$$



The total area is the sum of the $I_n$, which doesn't seem to have a closed form.



enter image description here



If we use the Taylor development of the arc tangent,



$$frac1{sqrt n}left(frac1{sqrt n}-frac1{3nsqrt n}+frac1{5n^2sqrt n}-cdotsright)-frac1{n+1}.$$



Now if we sum on $n$, noticing that the first term will telescope with the last one, we get



$$1-frac13zeta(2)+frac15zeta(3)-frac17zeta(4)+cdots$$






share|cite|improve this answer











$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    This is the same solution as that of Marty Cohen, but explained my way.
    $endgroup$
    – Yves Daoust
    Jul 19 '18 at 21:00





















2












$begingroup$

You want
$int_{0}^{1}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}dx
$.



Consider



$I
=int_{0}^{1}f({1/x})dx
$
where
$f(0) = 0.
f(1) = 1,
f'(x) ge 0
$.



Since
$n le 1/x
le n+1
$
for
$1/(n+1)
le x
le 1/n
$,



$begin{array}\
I
&=int_{0}^{1}f({1/x})dx\
&=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{1/(n+1)}^{1/n}f({1/x})dx\
&=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{1/(n+1)}^{1/n}f(1/x-n)dx\
&=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{n}^{n+1}f(y-n)dy/y^2
qquad y=1/x, x=1/y, dx=-dy/y^2\
&=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}f(y)dy/(y+n)^2\
&=int_{0}^{1}f(y)dysum_{n=1}^{infty}dfrac1{(y+n)^2}\
end{array}
$



so your result is



$begin{array}
I
&=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}f(y)dy/(y+n)^2\
&=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}sqrt{y}dy/(y+n)^2\
&=sum_{n=1}^{infty}left(dfrac{cot(sqrt{n})}{sqrt{n}} - dfrac1{n + 1}right)
qquadtext{(according to Wolfy)}\
end{array}
$



Note:
You can do this
for any function
(instead of $1/x$)
such that
$g(1) = 1,
g'(x) > 0,
g(x) to infty$
as $x to 0$.
You have to look
at $g^{(-1)}(x)$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    2












    $begingroup$

    $$int_{0}^{1}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } int_{frac{1}{n+1}}^{frac{1}{n}}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}
    , dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } int_{frac{1}{n+1}}^{frac{1}{n}} sqrt{frac{1}{x}-n} , dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } frac{-4 sqrt{n}+pi +n pi -2 (1+n) sin
    ^{-1}left(frac{-1+n}{1+n}right)}{4 sqrt{n} (1+n)}$$



    With the aid of computer algebra, we obtain integral and approximate series with value.



    Probably closed form of the sum does not exist.





    Supplement:



    Borrowing sum from user: Yves Daoust we can write:



    $$sum _{n=1}^{infty } left(frac{cot ^{-1}left(sqrt{n}right)}{sqrt{n}}-frac{1}{n+1}right)=1-gamma -int_0^1 frac{psi (1+x)}{2 sqrt{x}} , dxapprox 0.60204991$$



    where: $psi left(1+xright)$ is PolyGamma function






    share|cite|improve this answer











    $endgroup$














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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      4












      $begingroup$

      Due to the complexity of the computation (see other answers), we consider integrating $x,dy$ instead of $y,dx$.



      The function has discontinuities at every $x=dfrac1n$, which are jumps from $y=0$ to $y=1$. We can invert the function between $dfrac1{n+1}$ and $dfrac1n$ using



      $$y=sqrt{frac1x-n}iff x=frac1{y^2+n}.$$



      From this, the area under a tooth is given by



      $$I_n=int_0^1frac{dy}{y^2+n}-frac1{n+1}=frac1{sqrt n}arctanfrac1{sqrt n}-frac1{n+1}.$$



      The total area is the sum of the $I_n$, which doesn't seem to have a closed form.



      enter image description here



      If we use the Taylor development of the arc tangent,



      $$frac1{sqrt n}left(frac1{sqrt n}-frac1{3nsqrt n}+frac1{5n^2sqrt n}-cdotsright)-frac1{n+1}.$$



      Now if we sum on $n$, noticing that the first term will telescope with the last one, we get



      $$1-frac13zeta(2)+frac15zeta(3)-frac17zeta(4)+cdots$$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        This is the same solution as that of Marty Cohen, but explained my way.
        $endgroup$
        – Yves Daoust
        Jul 19 '18 at 21:00


















      4












      $begingroup$

      Due to the complexity of the computation (see other answers), we consider integrating $x,dy$ instead of $y,dx$.



      The function has discontinuities at every $x=dfrac1n$, which are jumps from $y=0$ to $y=1$. We can invert the function between $dfrac1{n+1}$ and $dfrac1n$ using



      $$y=sqrt{frac1x-n}iff x=frac1{y^2+n}.$$



      From this, the area under a tooth is given by



      $$I_n=int_0^1frac{dy}{y^2+n}-frac1{n+1}=frac1{sqrt n}arctanfrac1{sqrt n}-frac1{n+1}.$$



      The total area is the sum of the $I_n$, which doesn't seem to have a closed form.



      enter image description here



      If we use the Taylor development of the arc tangent,



      $$frac1{sqrt n}left(frac1{sqrt n}-frac1{3nsqrt n}+frac1{5n^2sqrt n}-cdotsright)-frac1{n+1}.$$



      Now if we sum on $n$, noticing that the first term will telescope with the last one, we get



      $$1-frac13zeta(2)+frac15zeta(3)-frac17zeta(4)+cdots$$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$













      • $begingroup$
        This is the same solution as that of Marty Cohen, but explained my way.
        $endgroup$
        – Yves Daoust
        Jul 19 '18 at 21:00
















      4












      4








      4





      $begingroup$

      Due to the complexity of the computation (see other answers), we consider integrating $x,dy$ instead of $y,dx$.



      The function has discontinuities at every $x=dfrac1n$, which are jumps from $y=0$ to $y=1$. We can invert the function between $dfrac1{n+1}$ and $dfrac1n$ using



      $$y=sqrt{frac1x-n}iff x=frac1{y^2+n}.$$



      From this, the area under a tooth is given by



      $$I_n=int_0^1frac{dy}{y^2+n}-frac1{n+1}=frac1{sqrt n}arctanfrac1{sqrt n}-frac1{n+1}.$$



      The total area is the sum of the $I_n$, which doesn't seem to have a closed form.



      enter image description here



      If we use the Taylor development of the arc tangent,



      $$frac1{sqrt n}left(frac1{sqrt n}-frac1{3nsqrt n}+frac1{5n^2sqrt n}-cdotsright)-frac1{n+1}.$$



      Now if we sum on $n$, noticing that the first term will telescope with the last one, we get



      $$1-frac13zeta(2)+frac15zeta(3)-frac17zeta(4)+cdots$$






      share|cite|improve this answer











      $endgroup$



      Due to the complexity of the computation (see other answers), we consider integrating $x,dy$ instead of $y,dx$.



      The function has discontinuities at every $x=dfrac1n$, which are jumps from $y=0$ to $y=1$. We can invert the function between $dfrac1{n+1}$ and $dfrac1n$ using



      $$y=sqrt{frac1x-n}iff x=frac1{y^2+n}.$$



      From this, the area under a tooth is given by



      $$I_n=int_0^1frac{dy}{y^2+n}-frac1{n+1}=frac1{sqrt n}arctanfrac1{sqrt n}-frac1{n+1}.$$



      The total area is the sum of the $I_n$, which doesn't seem to have a closed form.



      enter image description here



      If we use the Taylor development of the arc tangent,



      $$frac1{sqrt n}left(frac1{sqrt n}-frac1{3nsqrt n}+frac1{5n^2sqrt n}-cdotsright)-frac1{n+1}.$$



      Now if we sum on $n$, noticing that the first term will telescope with the last one, we get



      $$1-frac13zeta(2)+frac15zeta(3)-frac17zeta(4)+cdots$$







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Jul 19 '18 at 21:09

























      answered Jul 19 '18 at 20:59









      Yves DaoustYves Daoust

      131k676229




      131k676229












      • $begingroup$
        This is the same solution as that of Marty Cohen, but explained my way.
        $endgroup$
        – Yves Daoust
        Jul 19 '18 at 21:00




















      • $begingroup$
        This is the same solution as that of Marty Cohen, but explained my way.
        $endgroup$
        – Yves Daoust
        Jul 19 '18 at 21:00


















      $begingroup$
      This is the same solution as that of Marty Cohen, but explained my way.
      $endgroup$
      – Yves Daoust
      Jul 19 '18 at 21:00






      $begingroup$
      This is the same solution as that of Marty Cohen, but explained my way.
      $endgroup$
      – Yves Daoust
      Jul 19 '18 at 21:00













      2












      $begingroup$

      You want
      $int_{0}^{1}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}dx
      $.



      Consider



      $I
      =int_{0}^{1}f({1/x})dx
      $
      where
      $f(0) = 0.
      f(1) = 1,
      f'(x) ge 0
      $.



      Since
      $n le 1/x
      le n+1
      $
      for
      $1/(n+1)
      le x
      le 1/n
      $,



      $begin{array}\
      I
      &=int_{0}^{1}f({1/x})dx\
      &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{1/(n+1)}^{1/n}f({1/x})dx\
      &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{1/(n+1)}^{1/n}f(1/x-n)dx\
      &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{n}^{n+1}f(y-n)dy/y^2
      qquad y=1/x, x=1/y, dx=-dy/y^2\
      &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}f(y)dy/(y+n)^2\
      &=int_{0}^{1}f(y)dysum_{n=1}^{infty}dfrac1{(y+n)^2}\
      end{array}
      $



      so your result is



      $begin{array}
      I
      &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}f(y)dy/(y+n)^2\
      &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}sqrt{y}dy/(y+n)^2\
      &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}left(dfrac{cot(sqrt{n})}{sqrt{n}} - dfrac1{n + 1}right)
      qquadtext{(according to Wolfy)}\
      end{array}
      $



      Note:
      You can do this
      for any function
      (instead of $1/x$)
      such that
      $g(1) = 1,
      g'(x) > 0,
      g(x) to infty$
      as $x to 0$.
      You have to look
      at $g^{(-1)}(x)$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$


















        2












        $begingroup$

        You want
        $int_{0}^{1}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}dx
        $.



        Consider



        $I
        =int_{0}^{1}f({1/x})dx
        $
        where
        $f(0) = 0.
        f(1) = 1,
        f'(x) ge 0
        $.



        Since
        $n le 1/x
        le n+1
        $
        for
        $1/(n+1)
        le x
        le 1/n
        $,



        $begin{array}\
        I
        &=int_{0}^{1}f({1/x})dx\
        &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{1/(n+1)}^{1/n}f({1/x})dx\
        &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{1/(n+1)}^{1/n}f(1/x-n)dx\
        &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{n}^{n+1}f(y-n)dy/y^2
        qquad y=1/x, x=1/y, dx=-dy/y^2\
        &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}f(y)dy/(y+n)^2\
        &=int_{0}^{1}f(y)dysum_{n=1}^{infty}dfrac1{(y+n)^2}\
        end{array}
        $



        so your result is



        $begin{array}
        I
        &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}f(y)dy/(y+n)^2\
        &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}sqrt{y}dy/(y+n)^2\
        &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}left(dfrac{cot(sqrt{n})}{sqrt{n}} - dfrac1{n + 1}right)
        qquadtext{(according to Wolfy)}\
        end{array}
        $



        Note:
        You can do this
        for any function
        (instead of $1/x$)
        such that
        $g(1) = 1,
        g'(x) > 0,
        g(x) to infty$
        as $x to 0$.
        You have to look
        at $g^{(-1)}(x)$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$
















          2












          2








          2





          $begingroup$

          You want
          $int_{0}^{1}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}dx
          $.



          Consider



          $I
          =int_{0}^{1}f({1/x})dx
          $
          where
          $f(0) = 0.
          f(1) = 1,
          f'(x) ge 0
          $.



          Since
          $n le 1/x
          le n+1
          $
          for
          $1/(n+1)
          le x
          le 1/n
          $,



          $begin{array}\
          I
          &=int_{0}^{1}f({1/x})dx\
          &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{1/(n+1)}^{1/n}f({1/x})dx\
          &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{1/(n+1)}^{1/n}f(1/x-n)dx\
          &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{n}^{n+1}f(y-n)dy/y^2
          qquad y=1/x, x=1/y, dx=-dy/y^2\
          &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}f(y)dy/(y+n)^2\
          &=int_{0}^{1}f(y)dysum_{n=1}^{infty}dfrac1{(y+n)^2}\
          end{array}
          $



          so your result is



          $begin{array}
          I
          &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}f(y)dy/(y+n)^2\
          &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}sqrt{y}dy/(y+n)^2\
          &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}left(dfrac{cot(sqrt{n})}{sqrt{n}} - dfrac1{n + 1}right)
          qquadtext{(according to Wolfy)}\
          end{array}
          $



          Note:
          You can do this
          for any function
          (instead of $1/x$)
          such that
          $g(1) = 1,
          g'(x) > 0,
          g(x) to infty$
          as $x to 0$.
          You have to look
          at $g^{(-1)}(x)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$



          You want
          $int_{0}^{1}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}dx
          $.



          Consider



          $I
          =int_{0}^{1}f({1/x})dx
          $
          where
          $f(0) = 0.
          f(1) = 1,
          f'(x) ge 0
          $.



          Since
          $n le 1/x
          le n+1
          $
          for
          $1/(n+1)
          le x
          le 1/n
          $,



          $begin{array}\
          I
          &=int_{0}^{1}f({1/x})dx\
          &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{1/(n+1)}^{1/n}f({1/x})dx\
          &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{1/(n+1)}^{1/n}f(1/x-n)dx\
          &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{n}^{n+1}f(y-n)dy/y^2
          qquad y=1/x, x=1/y, dx=-dy/y^2\
          &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}f(y)dy/(y+n)^2\
          &=int_{0}^{1}f(y)dysum_{n=1}^{infty}dfrac1{(y+n)^2}\
          end{array}
          $



          so your result is



          $begin{array}
          I
          &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}f(y)dy/(y+n)^2\
          &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}int_{0}^{1}sqrt{y}dy/(y+n)^2\
          &=sum_{n=1}^{infty}left(dfrac{cot(sqrt{n})}{sqrt{n}} - dfrac1{n + 1}right)
          qquadtext{(according to Wolfy)}\
          end{array}
          $



          Note:
          You can do this
          for any function
          (instead of $1/x$)
          such that
          $g(1) = 1,
          g'(x) > 0,
          g(x) to infty$
          as $x to 0$.
          You have to look
          at $g^{(-1)}(x)$.







          share|cite|improve this answer












          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer










          answered Jul 19 '18 at 18:56









          marty cohenmarty cohen

          74.9k549130




          74.9k549130























              2












              $begingroup$

              $$int_{0}^{1}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } int_{frac{1}{n+1}}^{frac{1}{n}}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}
              , dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } int_{frac{1}{n+1}}^{frac{1}{n}} sqrt{frac{1}{x}-n} , dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } frac{-4 sqrt{n}+pi +n pi -2 (1+n) sin
              ^{-1}left(frac{-1+n}{1+n}right)}{4 sqrt{n} (1+n)}$$



              With the aid of computer algebra, we obtain integral and approximate series with value.



              Probably closed form of the sum does not exist.





              Supplement:



              Borrowing sum from user: Yves Daoust we can write:



              $$sum _{n=1}^{infty } left(frac{cot ^{-1}left(sqrt{n}right)}{sqrt{n}}-frac{1}{n+1}right)=1-gamma -int_0^1 frac{psi (1+x)}{2 sqrt{x}} , dxapprox 0.60204991$$



              where: $psi left(1+xright)$ is PolyGamma function






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$


















                2












                $begingroup$

                $$int_{0}^{1}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } int_{frac{1}{n+1}}^{frac{1}{n}}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}
                , dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } int_{frac{1}{n+1}}^{frac{1}{n}} sqrt{frac{1}{x}-n} , dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } frac{-4 sqrt{n}+pi +n pi -2 (1+n) sin
                ^{-1}left(frac{-1+n}{1+n}right)}{4 sqrt{n} (1+n)}$$



                With the aid of computer algebra, we obtain integral and approximate series with value.



                Probably closed form of the sum does not exist.





                Supplement:



                Borrowing sum from user: Yves Daoust we can write:



                $$sum _{n=1}^{infty } left(frac{cot ^{-1}left(sqrt{n}right)}{sqrt{n}}-frac{1}{n+1}right)=1-gamma -int_0^1 frac{psi (1+x)}{2 sqrt{x}} , dxapprox 0.60204991$$



                where: $psi left(1+xright)$ is PolyGamma function






                share|cite|improve this answer











                $endgroup$
















                  2












                  2








                  2





                  $begingroup$

                  $$int_{0}^{1}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } int_{frac{1}{n+1}}^{frac{1}{n}}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}
                  , dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } int_{frac{1}{n+1}}^{frac{1}{n}} sqrt{frac{1}{x}-n} , dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } frac{-4 sqrt{n}+pi +n pi -2 (1+n) sin
                  ^{-1}left(frac{-1+n}{1+n}right)}{4 sqrt{n} (1+n)}$$



                  With the aid of computer algebra, we obtain integral and approximate series with value.



                  Probably closed form of the sum does not exist.





                  Supplement:



                  Borrowing sum from user: Yves Daoust we can write:



                  $$sum _{n=1}^{infty } left(frac{cot ^{-1}left(sqrt{n}right)}{sqrt{n}}-frac{1}{n+1}right)=1-gamma -int_0^1 frac{psi (1+x)}{2 sqrt{x}} , dxapprox 0.60204991$$



                  where: $psi left(1+xright)$ is PolyGamma function






                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  $endgroup$



                  $$int_{0}^{1}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } int_{frac{1}{n+1}}^{frac{1}{n}}sqrt{bigg{frac{1}{x}bigg}}
                  , dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } int_{frac{1}{n+1}}^{frac{1}{n}} sqrt{frac{1}{x}-n} , dx=\sum _{n=1}^{infty } frac{-4 sqrt{n}+pi +n pi -2 (1+n) sin
                  ^{-1}left(frac{-1+n}{1+n}right)}{4 sqrt{n} (1+n)}$$



                  With the aid of computer algebra, we obtain integral and approximate series with value.



                  Probably closed form of the sum does not exist.





                  Supplement:



                  Borrowing sum from user: Yves Daoust we can write:



                  $$sum _{n=1}^{infty } left(frac{cot ^{-1}left(sqrt{n}right)}{sqrt{n}}-frac{1}{n+1}right)=1-gamma -int_0^1 frac{psi (1+x)}{2 sqrt{x}} , dxapprox 0.60204991$$



                  where: $psi left(1+xright)$ is PolyGamma function







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Jul 20 '18 at 7:29

























                  answered Jul 19 '18 at 20:23









                  Mariusz IwaniukMariusz Iwaniuk

                  1,9771718




                  1,9771718






























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