Showing that the Dirichlet function has no limit












2














Let $f(x) = 0$ if $x$ is rational and $f(x)=1$ if $x$ is irrational. Prove that $lim_{xto a} f(x)$ does not exist for any $a$.



Proof attempt:



Let $ainmathbb{R}$.
The only two possible values for a limit of $lim_{xto a}f(x)$ are $0,1$, since otherwise there will always be a constant gap between the valules of $f$ and the limit, and hence $f$ would not get arbitrarily small.



However, $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 1$ for the following reason: Set $epsilon = 1/2$ and let $delta > 0$. Then there exists a rational number $x_0$ in $0<|x_0-a|<delta$ by the density of the rationals. However, $|f(x_0)-1| = |0-1| = 1 not < 1/2$, and so $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 1$.



Also, $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 0$ for the following reason: Set $epsilon = 1/2$ and let $delta > 0$. Then there exists a irrational number $x_0$ in $0<|x_0-a|<delta$ by the density of the irrationals. However, $|f(x_0)-0| = |1-0| = 1 not < 1/2$, and so $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 0$.










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  • Exactly what are you asking? What point is the one you are unsure about?
    – Will M.
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:13










  • I am unsure of whether my proof is correct. For example, is assuming that the only possible limits are 0 and 1 a correct assumption? Then do I correctly rule these out as limits?
    – Wesley
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:15












  • Ok, technically speaking, you need to consider a value, whatever it may be, $L in mathbf{R},$ and then rule it out as a possible limit. You can divide three cases: (1) $L neq 0, 1$ (2) $L = 0$ and (3) $L=1.$
    – Will M.
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:17










  • Is at least my reasoning for cases (2) and (3) correct?
    – Wesley
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:30
















2














Let $f(x) = 0$ if $x$ is rational and $f(x)=1$ if $x$ is irrational. Prove that $lim_{xto a} f(x)$ does not exist for any $a$.



Proof attempt:



Let $ainmathbb{R}$.
The only two possible values for a limit of $lim_{xto a}f(x)$ are $0,1$, since otherwise there will always be a constant gap between the valules of $f$ and the limit, and hence $f$ would not get arbitrarily small.



However, $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 1$ for the following reason: Set $epsilon = 1/2$ and let $delta > 0$. Then there exists a rational number $x_0$ in $0<|x_0-a|<delta$ by the density of the rationals. However, $|f(x_0)-1| = |0-1| = 1 not < 1/2$, and so $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 1$.



Also, $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 0$ for the following reason: Set $epsilon = 1/2$ and let $delta > 0$. Then there exists a irrational number $x_0$ in $0<|x_0-a|<delta$ by the density of the irrationals. However, $|f(x_0)-0| = |1-0| = 1 not < 1/2$, and so $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 0$.










share|cite|improve this question






















  • Exactly what are you asking? What point is the one you are unsure about?
    – Will M.
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:13










  • I am unsure of whether my proof is correct. For example, is assuming that the only possible limits are 0 and 1 a correct assumption? Then do I correctly rule these out as limits?
    – Wesley
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:15












  • Ok, technically speaking, you need to consider a value, whatever it may be, $L in mathbf{R},$ and then rule it out as a possible limit. You can divide three cases: (1) $L neq 0, 1$ (2) $L = 0$ and (3) $L=1.$
    – Will M.
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:17










  • Is at least my reasoning for cases (2) and (3) correct?
    – Wesley
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:30














2












2








2


1





Let $f(x) = 0$ if $x$ is rational and $f(x)=1$ if $x$ is irrational. Prove that $lim_{xto a} f(x)$ does not exist for any $a$.



Proof attempt:



Let $ainmathbb{R}$.
The only two possible values for a limit of $lim_{xto a}f(x)$ are $0,1$, since otherwise there will always be a constant gap between the valules of $f$ and the limit, and hence $f$ would not get arbitrarily small.



However, $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 1$ for the following reason: Set $epsilon = 1/2$ and let $delta > 0$. Then there exists a rational number $x_0$ in $0<|x_0-a|<delta$ by the density of the rationals. However, $|f(x_0)-1| = |0-1| = 1 not < 1/2$, and so $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 1$.



Also, $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 0$ for the following reason: Set $epsilon = 1/2$ and let $delta > 0$. Then there exists a irrational number $x_0$ in $0<|x_0-a|<delta$ by the density of the irrationals. However, $|f(x_0)-0| = |1-0| = 1 not < 1/2$, and so $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 0$.










share|cite|improve this question













Let $f(x) = 0$ if $x$ is rational and $f(x)=1$ if $x$ is irrational. Prove that $lim_{xto a} f(x)$ does not exist for any $a$.



Proof attempt:



Let $ainmathbb{R}$.
The only two possible values for a limit of $lim_{xto a}f(x)$ are $0,1$, since otherwise there will always be a constant gap between the valules of $f$ and the limit, and hence $f$ would not get arbitrarily small.



However, $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 1$ for the following reason: Set $epsilon = 1/2$ and let $delta > 0$. Then there exists a rational number $x_0$ in $0<|x_0-a|<delta$ by the density of the rationals. However, $|f(x_0)-1| = |0-1| = 1 not < 1/2$, and so $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 1$.



Also, $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 0$ for the following reason: Set $epsilon = 1/2$ and let $delta > 0$. Then there exists a irrational number $x_0$ in $0<|x_0-a|<delta$ by the density of the irrationals. However, $|f(x_0)-0| = |1-0| = 1 not < 1/2$, and so $lim_{xto a}f(x) not = 0$.







real-analysis limits proof-verification






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asked Nov 21 '18 at 4:11









Wesley

525313




525313












  • Exactly what are you asking? What point is the one you are unsure about?
    – Will M.
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:13










  • I am unsure of whether my proof is correct. For example, is assuming that the only possible limits are 0 and 1 a correct assumption? Then do I correctly rule these out as limits?
    – Wesley
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:15












  • Ok, technically speaking, you need to consider a value, whatever it may be, $L in mathbf{R},$ and then rule it out as a possible limit. You can divide three cases: (1) $L neq 0, 1$ (2) $L = 0$ and (3) $L=1.$
    – Will M.
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:17










  • Is at least my reasoning for cases (2) and (3) correct?
    – Wesley
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:30


















  • Exactly what are you asking? What point is the one you are unsure about?
    – Will M.
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:13










  • I am unsure of whether my proof is correct. For example, is assuming that the only possible limits are 0 and 1 a correct assumption? Then do I correctly rule these out as limits?
    – Wesley
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:15












  • Ok, technically speaking, you need to consider a value, whatever it may be, $L in mathbf{R},$ and then rule it out as a possible limit. You can divide three cases: (1) $L neq 0, 1$ (2) $L = 0$ and (3) $L=1.$
    – Will M.
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:17










  • Is at least my reasoning for cases (2) and (3) correct?
    – Wesley
    Nov 21 '18 at 4:30
















Exactly what are you asking? What point is the one you are unsure about?
– Will M.
Nov 21 '18 at 4:13




Exactly what are you asking? What point is the one you are unsure about?
– Will M.
Nov 21 '18 at 4:13












I am unsure of whether my proof is correct. For example, is assuming that the only possible limits are 0 and 1 a correct assumption? Then do I correctly rule these out as limits?
– Wesley
Nov 21 '18 at 4:15






I am unsure of whether my proof is correct. For example, is assuming that the only possible limits are 0 and 1 a correct assumption? Then do I correctly rule these out as limits?
– Wesley
Nov 21 '18 at 4:15














Ok, technically speaking, you need to consider a value, whatever it may be, $L in mathbf{R},$ and then rule it out as a possible limit. You can divide three cases: (1) $L neq 0, 1$ (2) $L = 0$ and (3) $L=1.$
– Will M.
Nov 21 '18 at 4:17




Ok, technically speaking, you need to consider a value, whatever it may be, $L in mathbf{R},$ and then rule it out as a possible limit. You can divide three cases: (1) $L neq 0, 1$ (2) $L = 0$ and (3) $L=1.$
– Will M.
Nov 21 '18 at 4:17












Is at least my reasoning for cases (2) and (3) correct?
– Wesley
Nov 21 '18 at 4:30




Is at least my reasoning for cases (2) and (3) correct?
– Wesley
Nov 21 '18 at 4:30










1 Answer
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Your proof is complete and fine. Only one minor correction : "hence $f$ would not get arbitrarily small" should be changed to "hence $f$ would not get arbitrarily close to the possible limit", in the first paragraph of the proof (or changed to "hence $f-L$ would not get arbitrarily small, where $L neq 0,1$ is a possible limit").



There is another proof that will avoid the breaking of $L$ into cases : indeed, given $a in mathbb R$, by density of rationals and irrationals, there is a sequence of rationals and irrationals converging to $a$. But, $lim_{x to a} f(x)$ exists if and only if for any two sequences $a_n, b_n to a$ we have $lim a_n = lim b_n$, and here the sequence of rationals and irrationals produce different values, namely $0$ and $1$.






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    Your proof is complete and fine. Only one minor correction : "hence $f$ would not get arbitrarily small" should be changed to "hence $f$ would not get arbitrarily close to the possible limit", in the first paragraph of the proof (or changed to "hence $f-L$ would not get arbitrarily small, where $L neq 0,1$ is a possible limit").



    There is another proof that will avoid the breaking of $L$ into cases : indeed, given $a in mathbb R$, by density of rationals and irrationals, there is a sequence of rationals and irrationals converging to $a$. But, $lim_{x to a} f(x)$ exists if and only if for any two sequences $a_n, b_n to a$ we have $lim a_n = lim b_n$, and here the sequence of rationals and irrationals produce different values, namely $0$ and $1$.






    share|cite|improve this answer


























      3














      Your proof is complete and fine. Only one minor correction : "hence $f$ would not get arbitrarily small" should be changed to "hence $f$ would not get arbitrarily close to the possible limit", in the first paragraph of the proof (or changed to "hence $f-L$ would not get arbitrarily small, where $L neq 0,1$ is a possible limit").



      There is another proof that will avoid the breaking of $L$ into cases : indeed, given $a in mathbb R$, by density of rationals and irrationals, there is a sequence of rationals and irrationals converging to $a$. But, $lim_{x to a} f(x)$ exists if and only if for any two sequences $a_n, b_n to a$ we have $lim a_n = lim b_n$, and here the sequence of rationals and irrationals produce different values, namely $0$ and $1$.






      share|cite|improve this answer
























        3












        3








        3






        Your proof is complete and fine. Only one minor correction : "hence $f$ would not get arbitrarily small" should be changed to "hence $f$ would not get arbitrarily close to the possible limit", in the first paragraph of the proof (or changed to "hence $f-L$ would not get arbitrarily small, where $L neq 0,1$ is a possible limit").



        There is another proof that will avoid the breaking of $L$ into cases : indeed, given $a in mathbb R$, by density of rationals and irrationals, there is a sequence of rationals and irrationals converging to $a$. But, $lim_{x to a} f(x)$ exists if and only if for any two sequences $a_n, b_n to a$ we have $lim a_n = lim b_n$, and here the sequence of rationals and irrationals produce different values, namely $0$ and $1$.






        share|cite|improve this answer












        Your proof is complete and fine. Only one minor correction : "hence $f$ would not get arbitrarily small" should be changed to "hence $f$ would not get arbitrarily close to the possible limit", in the first paragraph of the proof (or changed to "hence $f-L$ would not get arbitrarily small, where $L neq 0,1$ is a possible limit").



        There is another proof that will avoid the breaking of $L$ into cases : indeed, given $a in mathbb R$, by density of rationals and irrationals, there is a sequence of rationals and irrationals converging to $a$. But, $lim_{x to a} f(x)$ exists if and only if for any two sequences $a_n, b_n to a$ we have $lim a_n = lim b_n$, and here the sequence of rationals and irrationals produce different values, namely $0$ and $1$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Nov 21 '18 at 5:02









        астон вілла олоф мэллбэрг

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