Contour integral vanishes












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I need some help regarding why the contour integral $$int_{gamma} frac{f(w)}{w-frac{1}{bar{z}}} mathrm dw$$ is equal to zero, where $gamma$ is the unit circle and $f$ is holomorphic on the unit disk and continuous on its closure.
I think I have to use Cauchy's Theorem, but can't understand why the integrand in this case is holomorphic and why, for example, the integrand in Cauchy's Formula (i.e. $frac{f(w)}{w-z}$) being very similar, is not.



Thank you all for any clues you can give me










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  • $begingroup$
    Where is $z$ located relative to $gamma$?
    $endgroup$
    – md2perpe
    Jan 30 at 16:58










  • $begingroup$
    z in on the open unit disk, so that $frac{1}{bar{z}}$ is outside the unit circle $gamma$. The thing is that I don't know how's that related to the function being holomorphic, since $w$ is in the unit circle in both of the cases I mentioned in my question
    $endgroup$
    – xan32
    Jan 31 at 0:03


















0












$begingroup$


I need some help regarding why the contour integral $$int_{gamma} frac{f(w)}{w-frac{1}{bar{z}}} mathrm dw$$ is equal to zero, where $gamma$ is the unit circle and $f$ is holomorphic on the unit disk and continuous on its closure.
I think I have to use Cauchy's Theorem, but can't understand why the integrand in this case is holomorphic and why, for example, the integrand in Cauchy's Formula (i.e. $frac{f(w)}{w-z}$) being very similar, is not.



Thank you all for any clues you can give me










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Where is $z$ located relative to $gamma$?
    $endgroup$
    – md2perpe
    Jan 30 at 16:58










  • $begingroup$
    z in on the open unit disk, so that $frac{1}{bar{z}}$ is outside the unit circle $gamma$. The thing is that I don't know how's that related to the function being holomorphic, since $w$ is in the unit circle in both of the cases I mentioned in my question
    $endgroup$
    – xan32
    Jan 31 at 0:03
















0












0








0





$begingroup$


I need some help regarding why the contour integral $$int_{gamma} frac{f(w)}{w-frac{1}{bar{z}}} mathrm dw$$ is equal to zero, where $gamma$ is the unit circle and $f$ is holomorphic on the unit disk and continuous on its closure.
I think I have to use Cauchy's Theorem, but can't understand why the integrand in this case is holomorphic and why, for example, the integrand in Cauchy's Formula (i.e. $frac{f(w)}{w-z}$) being very similar, is not.



Thank you all for any clues you can give me










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I need some help regarding why the contour integral $$int_{gamma} frac{f(w)}{w-frac{1}{bar{z}}} mathrm dw$$ is equal to zero, where $gamma$ is the unit circle and $f$ is holomorphic on the unit disk and continuous on its closure.
I think I have to use Cauchy's Theorem, but can't understand why the integrand in this case is holomorphic and why, for example, the integrand in Cauchy's Formula (i.e. $frac{f(w)}{w-z}$) being very similar, is not.



Thank you all for any clues you can give me







complex-analysis cauchy-integral-formula






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edited Jan 30 at 16:07









mrtaurho

6,09271641




6,09271641










asked Jan 30 at 16:04









xan32xan32

33




33












  • $begingroup$
    Where is $z$ located relative to $gamma$?
    $endgroup$
    – md2perpe
    Jan 30 at 16:58










  • $begingroup$
    z in on the open unit disk, so that $frac{1}{bar{z}}$ is outside the unit circle $gamma$. The thing is that I don't know how's that related to the function being holomorphic, since $w$ is in the unit circle in both of the cases I mentioned in my question
    $endgroup$
    – xan32
    Jan 31 at 0:03




















  • $begingroup$
    Where is $z$ located relative to $gamma$?
    $endgroup$
    – md2perpe
    Jan 30 at 16:58










  • $begingroup$
    z in on the open unit disk, so that $frac{1}{bar{z}}$ is outside the unit circle $gamma$. The thing is that I don't know how's that related to the function being holomorphic, since $w$ is in the unit circle in both of the cases I mentioned in my question
    $endgroup$
    – xan32
    Jan 31 at 0:03


















$begingroup$
Where is $z$ located relative to $gamma$?
$endgroup$
– md2perpe
Jan 30 at 16:58




$begingroup$
Where is $z$ located relative to $gamma$?
$endgroup$
– md2perpe
Jan 30 at 16:58












$begingroup$
z in on the open unit disk, so that $frac{1}{bar{z}}$ is outside the unit circle $gamma$. The thing is that I don't know how's that related to the function being holomorphic, since $w$ is in the unit circle in both of the cases I mentioned in my question
$endgroup$
– xan32
Jan 31 at 0:03






$begingroup$
z in on the open unit disk, so that $frac{1}{bar{z}}$ is outside the unit circle $gamma$. The thing is that I don't know how's that related to the function being holomorphic, since $w$ is in the unit circle in both of the cases I mentioned in my question
$endgroup$
– xan32
Jan 31 at 0:03












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$begingroup$

When $zeta$ is inside $gamma$ then $1/(w-zeta)$ is not holomorphic inside $gamma$ since it has a pole at $w=zeta$. When $zeta$ is outside $gamma$ then $1/(w-zeta)$ has no pole inside $gamma$ and is therefore holomorphic there. Thus, if $z$ is inside $gamma$ then $1/(w-z)$ is not holomorphic, but $1/(w-1/bar z)$ is. Therefore the integral in your question vanishes.






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    $begingroup$

    When $zeta$ is inside $gamma$ then $1/(w-zeta)$ is not holomorphic inside $gamma$ since it has a pole at $w=zeta$. When $zeta$ is outside $gamma$ then $1/(w-zeta)$ has no pole inside $gamma$ and is therefore holomorphic there. Thus, if $z$ is inside $gamma$ then $1/(w-z)$ is not holomorphic, but $1/(w-1/bar z)$ is. Therefore the integral in your question vanishes.






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      1












      $begingroup$

      When $zeta$ is inside $gamma$ then $1/(w-zeta)$ is not holomorphic inside $gamma$ since it has a pole at $w=zeta$. When $zeta$ is outside $gamma$ then $1/(w-zeta)$ has no pole inside $gamma$ and is therefore holomorphic there. Thus, if $z$ is inside $gamma$ then $1/(w-z)$ is not holomorphic, but $1/(w-1/bar z)$ is. Therefore the integral in your question vanishes.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        When $zeta$ is inside $gamma$ then $1/(w-zeta)$ is not holomorphic inside $gamma$ since it has a pole at $w=zeta$. When $zeta$ is outside $gamma$ then $1/(w-zeta)$ has no pole inside $gamma$ and is therefore holomorphic there. Thus, if $z$ is inside $gamma$ then $1/(w-z)$ is not holomorphic, but $1/(w-1/bar z)$ is. Therefore the integral in your question vanishes.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        When $zeta$ is inside $gamma$ then $1/(w-zeta)$ is not holomorphic inside $gamma$ since it has a pole at $w=zeta$. When $zeta$ is outside $gamma$ then $1/(w-zeta)$ has no pole inside $gamma$ and is therefore holomorphic there. Thus, if $z$ is inside $gamma$ then $1/(w-z)$ is not holomorphic, but $1/(w-1/bar z)$ is. Therefore the integral in your question vanishes.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 31 at 7:04









        md2perpemd2perpe

        8,32411028




        8,32411028






























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