Could anyone help me to prove the followings are equivalent?












2












$begingroup$


$Ksubseteq mathbb R^n$ be closed then show that TFAE



A probability measure $mu$ on $K$ is ergodic.



(1) Every $mu$-invariant set of $mu$ measure zero or one.



(2) $mu$ can-not be decomposed as $mu=xmu_1+(1-x)mu_2$ with $xin (0,1)$ for two invariant measures $mu_1,mu_2$



Thanks for helping me understanding and proving the above.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    What is your definition of ergodic measure? Because (2) is one of the possible definitions.
    $endgroup$
    – p4sch
    Jan 30 at 17:13
















2












$begingroup$


$Ksubseteq mathbb R^n$ be closed then show that TFAE



A probability measure $mu$ on $K$ is ergodic.



(1) Every $mu$-invariant set of $mu$ measure zero or one.



(2) $mu$ can-not be decomposed as $mu=xmu_1+(1-x)mu_2$ with $xin (0,1)$ for two invariant measures $mu_1,mu_2$



Thanks for helping me understanding and proving the above.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    What is your definition of ergodic measure? Because (2) is one of the possible definitions.
    $endgroup$
    – p4sch
    Jan 30 at 17:13














2












2








2





$begingroup$


$Ksubseteq mathbb R^n$ be closed then show that TFAE



A probability measure $mu$ on $K$ is ergodic.



(1) Every $mu$-invariant set of $mu$ measure zero or one.



(2) $mu$ can-not be decomposed as $mu=xmu_1+(1-x)mu_2$ with $xin (0,1)$ for two invariant measures $mu_1,mu_2$



Thanks for helping me understanding and proving the above.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




$Ksubseteq mathbb R^n$ be closed then show that TFAE



A probability measure $mu$ on $K$ is ergodic.



(1) Every $mu$-invariant set of $mu$ measure zero or one.



(2) $mu$ can-not be decomposed as $mu=xmu_1+(1-x)mu_2$ with $xin (0,1)$ for two invariant measures $mu_1,mu_2$



Thanks for helping me understanding and proving the above.







measure-theory ergodic-theory






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jan 31 at 11:56







miosaki

















asked Jan 30 at 16:44









miosakimiosaki

2,43411537




2,43411537








  • 3




    $begingroup$
    What is your definition of ergodic measure? Because (2) is one of the possible definitions.
    $endgroup$
    – p4sch
    Jan 30 at 17:13














  • 3




    $begingroup$
    What is your definition of ergodic measure? Because (2) is one of the possible definitions.
    $endgroup$
    – p4sch
    Jan 30 at 17:13








3




3




$begingroup$
What is your definition of ergodic measure? Because (2) is one of the possible definitions.
$endgroup$
– p4sch
Jan 30 at 17:13




$begingroup$
What is your definition of ergodic measure? Because (2) is one of the possible definitions.
$endgroup$
– p4sch
Jan 30 at 17:13










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