The degree of a splitting field over $mathbb{F}_p$ of non-reducible monic polynomial of degree $n$












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Let $finmathbb{F}_p(x)$ be a monic irreducible polynomial, denoting $deg(f)=n$.



I wish to show (if it's true) that $f(x)$'s splitting field is $mathbb{F}_{p^n}$.



I did some manual test for some polynomials till degree $5$, using the expansion field $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f(x) rangle$ , and used Frobenius' automorphism to show that if $a$ is a root then $a^p , a^{p^2},a^{p^3}...a^{p^n}$ are unique roots. When $|mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f(x) rangle| = p^n$.
Is there a way to show that this generally?



Other explanations will be appreciated, however I am not familiar with Galois theory.










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Read about the finite fields of q=p^n elements, for example at Wikipedia. Here a link "en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite_field#Existence_and_uniqueness".
    $endgroup$
    – AlgebraicallyClosed
    Jan 30 at 17:30
















0












$begingroup$


Let $finmathbb{F}_p(x)$ be a monic irreducible polynomial, denoting $deg(f)=n$.



I wish to show (if it's true) that $f(x)$'s splitting field is $mathbb{F}_{p^n}$.



I did some manual test for some polynomials till degree $5$, using the expansion field $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f(x) rangle$ , and used Frobenius' automorphism to show that if $a$ is a root then $a^p , a^{p^2},a^{p^3}...a^{p^n}$ are unique roots. When $|mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f(x) rangle| = p^n$.
Is there a way to show that this generally?



Other explanations will be appreciated, however I am not familiar with Galois theory.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Read about the finite fields of q=p^n elements, for example at Wikipedia. Here a link "en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite_field#Existence_and_uniqueness".
    $endgroup$
    – AlgebraicallyClosed
    Jan 30 at 17:30














0












0








0





$begingroup$


Let $finmathbb{F}_p(x)$ be a monic irreducible polynomial, denoting $deg(f)=n$.



I wish to show (if it's true) that $f(x)$'s splitting field is $mathbb{F}_{p^n}$.



I did some manual test for some polynomials till degree $5$, using the expansion field $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f(x) rangle$ , and used Frobenius' automorphism to show that if $a$ is a root then $a^p , a^{p^2},a^{p^3}...a^{p^n}$ are unique roots. When $|mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f(x) rangle| = p^n$.
Is there a way to show that this generally?



Other explanations will be appreciated, however I am not familiar with Galois theory.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Let $finmathbb{F}_p(x)$ be a monic irreducible polynomial, denoting $deg(f)=n$.



I wish to show (if it's true) that $f(x)$'s splitting field is $mathbb{F}_{p^n}$.



I did some manual test for some polynomials till degree $5$, using the expansion field $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f(x) rangle$ , and used Frobenius' automorphism to show that if $a$ is a root then $a^p , a^{p^2},a^{p^3}...a^{p^n}$ are unique roots. When $|mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f(x) rangle| = p^n$.
Is there a way to show that this generally?



Other explanations will be appreciated, however I am not familiar with Galois theory.







abstract-algebra field-theory finite-fields splitting-field






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asked Jan 30 at 16:42









dandan

621613




621613








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Read about the finite fields of q=p^n elements, for example at Wikipedia. Here a link "en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite_field#Existence_and_uniqueness".
    $endgroup$
    – AlgebraicallyClosed
    Jan 30 at 17:30














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    Read about the finite fields of q=p^n elements, for example at Wikipedia. Here a link "en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite_field#Existence_and_uniqueness".
    $endgroup$
    – AlgebraicallyClosed
    Jan 30 at 17:30








1




1




$begingroup$
Read about the finite fields of q=p^n elements, for example at Wikipedia. Here a link "en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite_field#Existence_and_uniqueness".
$endgroup$
– AlgebraicallyClosed
Jan 30 at 17:30




$begingroup$
Read about the finite fields of q=p^n elements, for example at Wikipedia. Here a link "en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite_field#Existence_and_uniqueness".
$endgroup$
– AlgebraicallyClosed
Jan 30 at 17:30










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All right, after some reading as proposed in comments, I believe this is the answer, please let me know If I'm wrong:



let $a$ be a root of $f(x)$ in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle$ .



So $|mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle| = p^n$. Thus it is isomorphic to $mathbb{F}_{p^n}$ in which $x^{p^n}-x$ is splitting.



Thus $a$ is a root of $x^{p^n}-xin mathbb{F}_p[x]$.



$f$ is irreducible thus $f(x) | p(x)$ over $mathbb{F}_p[x]$ because $f$ divides any polynomial with $a$ as a root. $x^{p^n}-x$ is splitting in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f ranglecongmathbb{F}_{p^n}$ thus $f$ must split in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle$.



There is not subfield in which $f$ splits in, because any field containing a roots of $f$ , $mathbb{F}_p(a)$ degree is $n$ and thus include $p^n$ elements.






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    $begingroup$

    All right, after some reading as proposed in comments, I believe this is the answer, please let me know If I'm wrong:



    let $a$ be a root of $f(x)$ in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle$ .



    So $|mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle| = p^n$. Thus it is isomorphic to $mathbb{F}_{p^n}$ in which $x^{p^n}-x$ is splitting.



    Thus $a$ is a root of $x^{p^n}-xin mathbb{F}_p[x]$.



    $f$ is irreducible thus $f(x) | p(x)$ over $mathbb{F}_p[x]$ because $f$ divides any polynomial with $a$ as a root. $x^{p^n}-x$ is splitting in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f ranglecongmathbb{F}_{p^n}$ thus $f$ must split in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle$.



    There is not subfield in which $f$ splits in, because any field containing a roots of $f$ , $mathbb{F}_p(a)$ degree is $n$ and thus include $p^n$ elements.






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      0












      $begingroup$

      All right, after some reading as proposed in comments, I believe this is the answer, please let me know If I'm wrong:



      let $a$ be a root of $f(x)$ in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle$ .



      So $|mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle| = p^n$. Thus it is isomorphic to $mathbb{F}_{p^n}$ in which $x^{p^n}-x$ is splitting.



      Thus $a$ is a root of $x^{p^n}-xin mathbb{F}_p[x]$.



      $f$ is irreducible thus $f(x) | p(x)$ over $mathbb{F}_p[x]$ because $f$ divides any polynomial with $a$ as a root. $x^{p^n}-x$ is splitting in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f ranglecongmathbb{F}_{p^n}$ thus $f$ must split in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle$.



      There is not subfield in which $f$ splits in, because any field containing a roots of $f$ , $mathbb{F}_p(a)$ degree is $n$ and thus include $p^n$ elements.






      share|cite|improve this answer











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        $begingroup$

        All right, after some reading as proposed in comments, I believe this is the answer, please let me know If I'm wrong:



        let $a$ be a root of $f(x)$ in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle$ .



        So $|mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle| = p^n$. Thus it is isomorphic to $mathbb{F}_{p^n}$ in which $x^{p^n}-x$ is splitting.



        Thus $a$ is a root of $x^{p^n}-xin mathbb{F}_p[x]$.



        $f$ is irreducible thus $f(x) | p(x)$ over $mathbb{F}_p[x]$ because $f$ divides any polynomial with $a$ as a root. $x^{p^n}-x$ is splitting in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f ranglecongmathbb{F}_{p^n}$ thus $f$ must split in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle$.



        There is not subfield in which $f$ splits in, because any field containing a roots of $f$ , $mathbb{F}_p(a)$ degree is $n$ and thus include $p^n$ elements.






        share|cite|improve this answer











        $endgroup$



        All right, after some reading as proposed in comments, I believe this is the answer, please let me know If I'm wrong:



        let $a$ be a root of $f(x)$ in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle$ .



        So $|mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle| = p^n$. Thus it is isomorphic to $mathbb{F}_{p^n}$ in which $x^{p^n}-x$ is splitting.



        Thus $a$ is a root of $x^{p^n}-xin mathbb{F}_p[x]$.



        $f$ is irreducible thus $f(x) | p(x)$ over $mathbb{F}_p[x]$ because $f$ divides any polynomial with $a$ as a root. $x^{p^n}-x$ is splitting in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f ranglecongmathbb{F}_{p^n}$ thus $f$ must split in $mathbb{F}_p[x]/langle f rangle$.



        There is not subfield in which $f$ splits in, because any field containing a roots of $f$ , $mathbb{F}_p(a)$ degree is $n$ and thus include $p^n$ elements.







        share|cite|improve this answer














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        edited Jan 30 at 18:55

























        answered Jan 30 at 16:58









        dandan

        621613




        621613






























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