How do I prove the equivalence between surjectivity or injectivity and existence of one sided inverse...












0












$begingroup$


I am having a problem with a three piece exercise.



It goes like this:
a) Show that there exists a function $g$ such that $fcirc g = I$ if and only if $f$ is surjective.



b) Show that there exists a function $h$ such that $hcirc f = I$ if and only if $f$ is injective.



c) If $fcirc g = fcirc h = I$, is it always true that $g = h$?



Here $I$ is the identity function and all functions go from $mathbb{R}$ to $mathbb{R}$.



I think the first two make perfect sense but I have no idea how to effectively show the implications towards the existence of a function.



Thank you in advance for all the help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Try to go step by step, one implication at a time, working from/towards the definitions. So for part a, start by assuming such g exists. Now use that g to show surjectivity, ie take an arbitrary y and write down x such that f(x)=y.
    $endgroup$
    – Nathaniel Mayer
    Jan 30 at 17:43












  • $begingroup$
    I really am not seeing how to do this. Maybe I don’t know all the definitions, but I really don’t even know what would be missing
    $endgroup$
    – Daàvid
    Jan 30 at 18:13












  • $begingroup$
    I just gave you the definition of surjectivity. Suppose you have functions f and g and a real number y, and that f(g) = I. Find x such that f(x)=y. Does that make sense?
    $endgroup$
    – Nathaniel Mayer
    Jan 30 at 18:15










  • $begingroup$
    If you can't get the formality, maybe start by writing in sentences why it "makes perfect sense"
    $endgroup$
    – Nathaniel Mayer
    Jan 30 at 18:16










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, thank you. I knew those definitions, I just was taking the functions in the opposite order and it wasn’t making sense
    $endgroup$
    – Daàvid
    Jan 30 at 18:18
















0












$begingroup$


I am having a problem with a three piece exercise.



It goes like this:
a) Show that there exists a function $g$ such that $fcirc g = I$ if and only if $f$ is surjective.



b) Show that there exists a function $h$ such that $hcirc f = I$ if and only if $f$ is injective.



c) If $fcirc g = fcirc h = I$, is it always true that $g = h$?



Here $I$ is the identity function and all functions go from $mathbb{R}$ to $mathbb{R}$.



I think the first two make perfect sense but I have no idea how to effectively show the implications towards the existence of a function.



Thank you in advance for all the help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    Try to go step by step, one implication at a time, working from/towards the definitions. So for part a, start by assuming such g exists. Now use that g to show surjectivity, ie take an arbitrary y and write down x such that f(x)=y.
    $endgroup$
    – Nathaniel Mayer
    Jan 30 at 17:43












  • $begingroup$
    I really am not seeing how to do this. Maybe I don’t know all the definitions, but I really don’t even know what would be missing
    $endgroup$
    – Daàvid
    Jan 30 at 18:13












  • $begingroup$
    I just gave you the definition of surjectivity. Suppose you have functions f and g and a real number y, and that f(g) = I. Find x such that f(x)=y. Does that make sense?
    $endgroup$
    – Nathaniel Mayer
    Jan 30 at 18:15










  • $begingroup$
    If you can't get the formality, maybe start by writing in sentences why it "makes perfect sense"
    $endgroup$
    – Nathaniel Mayer
    Jan 30 at 18:16










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, thank you. I knew those definitions, I just was taking the functions in the opposite order and it wasn’t making sense
    $endgroup$
    – Daàvid
    Jan 30 at 18:18














0












0








0





$begingroup$


I am having a problem with a three piece exercise.



It goes like this:
a) Show that there exists a function $g$ such that $fcirc g = I$ if and only if $f$ is surjective.



b) Show that there exists a function $h$ such that $hcirc f = I$ if and only if $f$ is injective.



c) If $fcirc g = fcirc h = I$, is it always true that $g = h$?



Here $I$ is the identity function and all functions go from $mathbb{R}$ to $mathbb{R}$.



I think the first two make perfect sense but I have no idea how to effectively show the implications towards the existence of a function.



Thank you in advance for all the help.










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




I am having a problem with a three piece exercise.



It goes like this:
a) Show that there exists a function $g$ such that $fcirc g = I$ if and only if $f$ is surjective.



b) Show that there exists a function $h$ such that $hcirc f = I$ if and only if $f$ is injective.



c) If $fcirc g = fcirc h = I$, is it always true that $g = h$?



Here $I$ is the identity function and all functions go from $mathbb{R}$ to $mathbb{R}$.



I think the first two make perfect sense but I have no idea how to effectively show the implications towards the existence of a function.



Thank you in advance for all the help.







abstract-algebra






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Feb 1 at 7:47







Daàvid

















asked Jan 30 at 17:14









DaàvidDaàvid

505




505












  • $begingroup$
    Try to go step by step, one implication at a time, working from/towards the definitions. So for part a, start by assuming such g exists. Now use that g to show surjectivity, ie take an arbitrary y and write down x such that f(x)=y.
    $endgroup$
    – Nathaniel Mayer
    Jan 30 at 17:43












  • $begingroup$
    I really am not seeing how to do this. Maybe I don’t know all the definitions, but I really don’t even know what would be missing
    $endgroup$
    – Daàvid
    Jan 30 at 18:13












  • $begingroup$
    I just gave you the definition of surjectivity. Suppose you have functions f and g and a real number y, and that f(g) = I. Find x such that f(x)=y. Does that make sense?
    $endgroup$
    – Nathaniel Mayer
    Jan 30 at 18:15










  • $begingroup$
    If you can't get the formality, maybe start by writing in sentences why it "makes perfect sense"
    $endgroup$
    – Nathaniel Mayer
    Jan 30 at 18:16










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, thank you. I knew those definitions, I just was taking the functions in the opposite order and it wasn’t making sense
    $endgroup$
    – Daàvid
    Jan 30 at 18:18


















  • $begingroup$
    Try to go step by step, one implication at a time, working from/towards the definitions. So for part a, start by assuming such g exists. Now use that g to show surjectivity, ie take an arbitrary y and write down x such that f(x)=y.
    $endgroup$
    – Nathaniel Mayer
    Jan 30 at 17:43












  • $begingroup$
    I really am not seeing how to do this. Maybe I don’t know all the definitions, but I really don’t even know what would be missing
    $endgroup$
    – Daàvid
    Jan 30 at 18:13












  • $begingroup$
    I just gave you the definition of surjectivity. Suppose you have functions f and g and a real number y, and that f(g) = I. Find x such that f(x)=y. Does that make sense?
    $endgroup$
    – Nathaniel Mayer
    Jan 30 at 18:15










  • $begingroup$
    If you can't get the formality, maybe start by writing in sentences why it "makes perfect sense"
    $endgroup$
    – Nathaniel Mayer
    Jan 30 at 18:16










  • $begingroup$
    Oh, thank you. I knew those definitions, I just was taking the functions in the opposite order and it wasn’t making sense
    $endgroup$
    – Daàvid
    Jan 30 at 18:18
















$begingroup$
Try to go step by step, one implication at a time, working from/towards the definitions. So for part a, start by assuming such g exists. Now use that g to show surjectivity, ie take an arbitrary y and write down x such that f(x)=y.
$endgroup$
– Nathaniel Mayer
Jan 30 at 17:43






$begingroup$
Try to go step by step, one implication at a time, working from/towards the definitions. So for part a, start by assuming such g exists. Now use that g to show surjectivity, ie take an arbitrary y and write down x such that f(x)=y.
$endgroup$
– Nathaniel Mayer
Jan 30 at 17:43














$begingroup$
I really am not seeing how to do this. Maybe I don’t know all the definitions, but I really don’t even know what would be missing
$endgroup$
– Daàvid
Jan 30 at 18:13






$begingroup$
I really am not seeing how to do this. Maybe I don’t know all the definitions, but I really don’t even know what would be missing
$endgroup$
– Daàvid
Jan 30 at 18:13














$begingroup$
I just gave you the definition of surjectivity. Suppose you have functions f and g and a real number y, and that f(g) = I. Find x such that f(x)=y. Does that make sense?
$endgroup$
– Nathaniel Mayer
Jan 30 at 18:15




$begingroup$
I just gave you the definition of surjectivity. Suppose you have functions f and g and a real number y, and that f(g) = I. Find x such that f(x)=y. Does that make sense?
$endgroup$
– Nathaniel Mayer
Jan 30 at 18:15












$begingroup$
If you can't get the formality, maybe start by writing in sentences why it "makes perfect sense"
$endgroup$
– Nathaniel Mayer
Jan 30 at 18:16




$begingroup$
If you can't get the formality, maybe start by writing in sentences why it "makes perfect sense"
$endgroup$
– Nathaniel Mayer
Jan 30 at 18:16












$begingroup$
Oh, thank you. I knew those definitions, I just was taking the functions in the opposite order and it wasn’t making sense
$endgroup$
– Daàvid
Jan 30 at 18:18




$begingroup$
Oh, thank you. I knew those definitions, I just was taking the functions in the opposite order and it wasn’t making sense
$endgroup$
– Daàvid
Jan 30 at 18:18










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