Limit of sequence $x_n = x_{n-1} cdot(2-frac{tan^{-1}(n) cdot n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2})$












-1












$begingroup$


Find limit of a sequence:
$$x_n = left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(1) cdot 1^2 - 3}{3 + 1^2}right)left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(2) cdot 2^2 - 3}{3 + 2^2}right) cdot ldots cdot left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(n) cdot n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2}right)$$



Recursively:
$x_n = x_{n-1} cdot left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(n) cdot n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2}right)$.
I think that for big enough $n$, expression in the parentheses becomes smaller than $1$, so $(x_n)$ should be decreasing.
And after I move on to limit in recurrence formula, I get that limit is $0$. Is this right ?










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  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That the factors are eventually smaller than $1$ is not enough and only shows that $x_n$ is decreasing. However, the limit of the factors is $2-frac pi2$, so $<1$, and that implies $x_nto 0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 29 at 14:33










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but from the fact that $x_n$ is decreasing and bounded below, by zero, it follows that it converges ? And if limit of $x_n$ is $a$, from $a = a timesleft(2-frac{arctg(n) times n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2}right)$, it follows that $a$ is zero. Is this reasoning ok ?
    $endgroup$
    – user639107
    Jan 29 at 14:38


















-1












$begingroup$


Find limit of a sequence:
$$x_n = left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(1) cdot 1^2 - 3}{3 + 1^2}right)left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(2) cdot 2^2 - 3}{3 + 2^2}right) cdot ldots cdot left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(n) cdot n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2}right)$$



Recursively:
$x_n = x_{n-1} cdot left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(n) cdot n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2}right)$.
I think that for big enough $n$, expression in the parentheses becomes smaller than $1$, so $(x_n)$ should be decreasing.
And after I move on to limit in recurrence formula, I get that limit is $0$. Is this right ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That the factors are eventually smaller than $1$ is not enough and only shows that $x_n$ is decreasing. However, the limit of the factors is $2-frac pi2$, so $<1$, and that implies $x_nto 0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 29 at 14:33










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but from the fact that $x_n$ is decreasing and bounded below, by zero, it follows that it converges ? And if limit of $x_n$ is $a$, from $a = a timesleft(2-frac{arctg(n) times n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2}right)$, it follows that $a$ is zero. Is this reasoning ok ?
    $endgroup$
    – user639107
    Jan 29 at 14:38
















-1












-1








-1


0



$begingroup$


Find limit of a sequence:
$$x_n = left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(1) cdot 1^2 - 3}{3 + 1^2}right)left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(2) cdot 2^2 - 3}{3 + 2^2}right) cdot ldots cdot left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(n) cdot n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2}right)$$



Recursively:
$x_n = x_{n-1} cdot left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(n) cdot n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2}right)$.
I think that for big enough $n$, expression in the parentheses becomes smaller than $1$, so $(x_n)$ should be decreasing.
And after I move on to limit in recurrence formula, I get that limit is $0$. Is this right ?










share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$




Find limit of a sequence:
$$x_n = left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(1) cdot 1^2 - 3}{3 + 1^2}right)left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(2) cdot 2^2 - 3}{3 + 2^2}right) cdot ldots cdot left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(n) cdot n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2}right)$$



Recursively:
$x_n = x_{n-1} cdot left(2-frac{tan^{-1}(n) cdot n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2}right)$.
I think that for big enough $n$, expression in the parentheses becomes smaller than $1$, so $(x_n)$ should be decreasing.
And after I move on to limit in recurrence formula, I get that limit is $0$. Is this right ?







real-analysis sequences-and-series limits






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edited Jan 29 at 14:36









Viktor Glombik

1,3062628




1,3062628










asked Jan 29 at 14:24







user639107















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That the factors are eventually smaller than $1$ is not enough and only shows that $x_n$ is decreasing. However, the limit of the factors is $2-frac pi2$, so $<1$, and that implies $x_nto 0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 29 at 14:33










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but from the fact that $x_n$ is decreasing and bounded below, by zero, it follows that it converges ? And if limit of $x_n$ is $a$, from $a = a timesleft(2-frac{arctg(n) times n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2}right)$, it follows that $a$ is zero. Is this reasoning ok ?
    $endgroup$
    – user639107
    Jan 29 at 14:38
















  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That the factors are eventually smaller than $1$ is not enough and only shows that $x_n$ is decreasing. However, the limit of the factors is $2-frac pi2$, so $<1$, and that implies $x_nto 0$.
    $endgroup$
    – Hagen von Eitzen
    Jan 29 at 14:33










  • $begingroup$
    Yes, but from the fact that $x_n$ is decreasing and bounded below, by zero, it follows that it converges ? And if limit of $x_n$ is $a$, from $a = a timesleft(2-frac{arctg(n) times n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2}right)$, it follows that $a$ is zero. Is this reasoning ok ?
    $endgroup$
    – user639107
    Jan 29 at 14:38










1




1




$begingroup$
That the factors are eventually smaller than $1$ is not enough and only shows that $x_n$ is decreasing. However, the limit of the factors is $2-frac pi2$, so $<1$, and that implies $x_nto 0$.
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Jan 29 at 14:33




$begingroup$
That the factors are eventually smaller than $1$ is not enough and only shows that $x_n$ is decreasing. However, the limit of the factors is $2-frac pi2$, so $<1$, and that implies $x_nto 0$.
$endgroup$
– Hagen von Eitzen
Jan 29 at 14:33












$begingroup$
Yes, but from the fact that $x_n$ is decreasing and bounded below, by zero, it follows that it converges ? And if limit of $x_n$ is $a$, from $a = a timesleft(2-frac{arctg(n) times n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2}right)$, it follows that $a$ is zero. Is this reasoning ok ?
$endgroup$
– user639107
Jan 29 at 14:38






$begingroup$
Yes, but from the fact that $x_n$ is decreasing and bounded below, by zero, it follows that it converges ? And if limit of $x_n$ is $a$, from $a = a timesleft(2-frac{arctg(n) times n^2 - 3}{3 + n^2}right)$, it follows that $a$ is zero. Is this reasoning ok ?
$endgroup$
– user639107
Jan 29 at 14:38












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For $n$ large enough $arctan(n)in (pi/2-0.1,pi/2)$, let $d=pi/2-0.1$, then $arctan(n)>d$ for $n$ large enough. Some algebra gives
begin{equation}begin{aligned}
2-frac{arctan(n) n^2-3}{3+n^2}&leqslant frac{2-d}{1+frac{3}{n^2}}\
&leqslant 2-d+0.1text{ for }n text{ large enough}
end{aligned}end{equation}

This means that for $n$ large enough we are multiplying by a number less than 0.63, and hence will give zero.






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    $begingroup$

    For $n$ large enough $arctan(n)in (pi/2-0.1,pi/2)$, let $d=pi/2-0.1$, then $arctan(n)>d$ for $n$ large enough. Some algebra gives
    begin{equation}begin{aligned}
    2-frac{arctan(n) n^2-3}{3+n^2}&leqslant frac{2-d}{1+frac{3}{n^2}}\
    &leqslant 2-d+0.1text{ for }n text{ large enough}
    end{aligned}end{equation}

    This means that for $n$ large enough we are multiplying by a number less than 0.63, and hence will give zero.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      1












      $begingroup$

      For $n$ large enough $arctan(n)in (pi/2-0.1,pi/2)$, let $d=pi/2-0.1$, then $arctan(n)>d$ for $n$ large enough. Some algebra gives
      begin{equation}begin{aligned}
      2-frac{arctan(n) n^2-3}{3+n^2}&leqslant frac{2-d}{1+frac{3}{n^2}}\
      &leqslant 2-d+0.1text{ for }n text{ large enough}
      end{aligned}end{equation}

      This means that for $n$ large enough we are multiplying by a number less than 0.63, and hence will give zero.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        For $n$ large enough $arctan(n)in (pi/2-0.1,pi/2)$, let $d=pi/2-0.1$, then $arctan(n)>d$ for $n$ large enough. Some algebra gives
        begin{equation}begin{aligned}
        2-frac{arctan(n) n^2-3}{3+n^2}&leqslant frac{2-d}{1+frac{3}{n^2}}\
        &leqslant 2-d+0.1text{ for }n text{ large enough}
        end{aligned}end{equation}

        This means that for $n$ large enough we are multiplying by a number less than 0.63, and hence will give zero.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        For $n$ large enough $arctan(n)in (pi/2-0.1,pi/2)$, let $d=pi/2-0.1$, then $arctan(n)>d$ for $n$ large enough. Some algebra gives
        begin{equation}begin{aligned}
        2-frac{arctan(n) n^2-3}{3+n^2}&leqslant frac{2-d}{1+frac{3}{n^2}}\
        &leqslant 2-d+0.1text{ for }n text{ large enough}
        end{aligned}end{equation}

        This means that for $n$ large enough we are multiplying by a number less than 0.63, and hence will give zero.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 29 at 14:34









        Alec B-GAlec B-G

        52019




        52019






























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