proof about self-adjoint operators $T,P$












1












$begingroup$


Prove that for self-adjoint operators $T,P in B(H)$ where $H$ is a Hilbert space ($B(H)$ is the space of all bounded functions from $H to H$) and $T leq P$ then $|T|leq |P|$ .



So by assumption $Tleq P$ so $langle Tx,x rangle leq langle Px,x rangle$ for every $x in H$. So then the norm is just the supremum over all $xin H$ where $|x| = 1$ and this holds because the inequality was true for every $xin H$. Is this correct? I feel like it is quite obvious.










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$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That's correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Stefan Lafon
    Feb 1 at 17:56
















1












$begingroup$


Prove that for self-adjoint operators $T,P in B(H)$ where $H$ is a Hilbert space ($B(H)$ is the space of all bounded functions from $H to H$) and $T leq P$ then $|T|leq |P|$ .



So by assumption $Tleq P$ so $langle Tx,x rangle leq langle Px,x rangle$ for every $x in H$. So then the norm is just the supremum over all $xin H$ where $|x| = 1$ and this holds because the inequality was true for every $xin H$. Is this correct? I feel like it is quite obvious.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That's correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Stefan Lafon
    Feb 1 at 17:56














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Prove that for self-adjoint operators $T,P in B(H)$ where $H$ is a Hilbert space ($B(H)$ is the space of all bounded functions from $H to H$) and $T leq P$ then $|T|leq |P|$ .



So by assumption $Tleq P$ so $langle Tx,x rangle leq langle Px,x rangle$ for every $x in H$. So then the norm is just the supremum over all $xin H$ where $|x| = 1$ and this holds because the inequality was true for every $xin H$. Is this correct? I feel like it is quite obvious.










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Prove that for self-adjoint operators $T,P in B(H)$ where $H$ is a Hilbert space ($B(H)$ is the space of all bounded functions from $H to H$) and $T leq P$ then $|T|leq |P|$ .



So by assumption $Tleq P$ so $langle Tx,x rangle leq langle Px,x rangle$ for every $x in H$. So then the norm is just the supremum over all $xin H$ where $|x| = 1$ and this holds because the inequality was true for every $xin H$. Is this correct? I feel like it is quite obvious.







functional-analysis operator-theory hilbert-spaces self-adjoint-operators






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share|cite|improve this question




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asked Feb 1 at 17:35









mandellamandella

782522




782522








  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That's correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Stefan Lafon
    Feb 1 at 17:56














  • 1




    $begingroup$
    That's correct.
    $endgroup$
    – Stefan Lafon
    Feb 1 at 17:56








1




1




$begingroup$
That's correct.
$endgroup$
– Stefan Lafon
Feb 1 at 17:56




$begingroup$
That's correct.
$endgroup$
– Stefan Lafon
Feb 1 at 17:56










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes


















3












$begingroup$

We need additional assumption to make your statement as true. A very obvious counterexample is $T=-2I$, $P=I$.



If we make additional assumption that $Ole Tle P$, i.e. $T,P$ are non-negative elements of $B(H)$, then it is true that $|T|le |P|$. Here's a spectral argument that can show this. Note that the norm is equal to the spectral radius for every self-adjoint operator. Let $lambda = |P|$ be the maximal element of the spectrum $sigma(P)$. Since $sigma(P)subset [0,lambda]$, we have $Ole Tle Ple lambda I$. We find that $
sigma(T)subset [0,lambda],
$
which implies that $|T|le lambda = |P|$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I understand that we need the additional assumption, and I also like your proof. I was just wondering if my proof is ok under the assumption that they are non-negative?
    $endgroup$
    – mandella
    Feb 2 at 14:37






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @mandella Your proof is very correct!
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Feb 2 at 16:47










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much!
    $endgroup$
    – mandella
    Feb 2 at 20:03












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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1






active

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3












$begingroup$

We need additional assumption to make your statement as true. A very obvious counterexample is $T=-2I$, $P=I$.



If we make additional assumption that $Ole Tle P$, i.e. $T,P$ are non-negative elements of $B(H)$, then it is true that $|T|le |P|$. Here's a spectral argument that can show this. Note that the norm is equal to the spectral radius for every self-adjoint operator. Let $lambda = |P|$ be the maximal element of the spectrum $sigma(P)$. Since $sigma(P)subset [0,lambda]$, we have $Ole Tle Ple lambda I$. We find that $
sigma(T)subset [0,lambda],
$
which implies that $|T|le lambda = |P|$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I understand that we need the additional assumption, and I also like your proof. I was just wondering if my proof is ok under the assumption that they are non-negative?
    $endgroup$
    – mandella
    Feb 2 at 14:37






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @mandella Your proof is very correct!
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Feb 2 at 16:47










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much!
    $endgroup$
    – mandella
    Feb 2 at 20:03
















3












$begingroup$

We need additional assumption to make your statement as true. A very obvious counterexample is $T=-2I$, $P=I$.



If we make additional assumption that $Ole Tle P$, i.e. $T,P$ are non-negative elements of $B(H)$, then it is true that $|T|le |P|$. Here's a spectral argument that can show this. Note that the norm is equal to the spectral radius for every self-adjoint operator. Let $lambda = |P|$ be the maximal element of the spectrum $sigma(P)$. Since $sigma(P)subset [0,lambda]$, we have $Ole Tle Ple lambda I$. We find that $
sigma(T)subset [0,lambda],
$
which implies that $|T|le lambda = |P|$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$













  • $begingroup$
    I understand that we need the additional assumption, and I also like your proof. I was just wondering if my proof is ok under the assumption that they are non-negative?
    $endgroup$
    – mandella
    Feb 2 at 14:37






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @mandella Your proof is very correct!
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Feb 2 at 16:47










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much!
    $endgroup$
    – mandella
    Feb 2 at 20:03














3












3








3





$begingroup$

We need additional assumption to make your statement as true. A very obvious counterexample is $T=-2I$, $P=I$.



If we make additional assumption that $Ole Tle P$, i.e. $T,P$ are non-negative elements of $B(H)$, then it is true that $|T|le |P|$. Here's a spectral argument that can show this. Note that the norm is equal to the spectral radius for every self-adjoint operator. Let $lambda = |P|$ be the maximal element of the spectrum $sigma(P)$. Since $sigma(P)subset [0,lambda]$, we have $Ole Tle Ple lambda I$. We find that $
sigma(T)subset [0,lambda],
$
which implies that $|T|le lambda = |P|$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$



We need additional assumption to make your statement as true. A very obvious counterexample is $T=-2I$, $P=I$.



If we make additional assumption that $Ole Tle P$, i.e. $T,P$ are non-negative elements of $B(H)$, then it is true that $|T|le |P|$. Here's a spectral argument that can show this. Note that the norm is equal to the spectral radius for every self-adjoint operator. Let $lambda = |P|$ be the maximal element of the spectrum $sigma(P)$. Since $sigma(P)subset [0,lambda]$, we have $Ole Tle Ple lambda I$. We find that $
sigma(T)subset [0,lambda],
$
which implies that $|T|le lambda = |P|$.







share|cite|improve this answer












share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer










answered Feb 1 at 18:00









SongSong

18.6k21651




18.6k21651












  • $begingroup$
    I understand that we need the additional assumption, and I also like your proof. I was just wondering if my proof is ok under the assumption that they are non-negative?
    $endgroup$
    – mandella
    Feb 2 at 14:37






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @mandella Your proof is very correct!
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Feb 2 at 16:47










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much!
    $endgroup$
    – mandella
    Feb 2 at 20:03


















  • $begingroup$
    I understand that we need the additional assumption, and I also like your proof. I was just wondering if my proof is ok under the assumption that they are non-negative?
    $endgroup$
    – mandella
    Feb 2 at 14:37






  • 1




    $begingroup$
    @mandella Your proof is very correct!
    $endgroup$
    – Song
    Feb 2 at 16:47










  • $begingroup$
    Thank you very much!
    $endgroup$
    – mandella
    Feb 2 at 20:03
















$begingroup$
I understand that we need the additional assumption, and I also like your proof. I was just wondering if my proof is ok under the assumption that they are non-negative?
$endgroup$
– mandella
Feb 2 at 14:37




$begingroup$
I understand that we need the additional assumption, and I also like your proof. I was just wondering if my proof is ok under the assumption that they are non-negative?
$endgroup$
– mandella
Feb 2 at 14:37




1




1




$begingroup$
@mandella Your proof is very correct!
$endgroup$
– Song
Feb 2 at 16:47




$begingroup$
@mandella Your proof is very correct!
$endgroup$
– Song
Feb 2 at 16:47












$begingroup$
Thank you very much!
$endgroup$
– mandella
Feb 2 at 20:03




$begingroup$
Thank you very much!
$endgroup$
– mandella
Feb 2 at 20:03


















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