probability measure of Random Variable on probability space












0














A random variable is a function that transform a probability space to another space is built up on real number



i.e ($Omega,mathcal F,P)to(Bbb R,mathcal B,P_X$)



and a random variable is call measurable if $forall B in mathcal B$ $X^{-1}(B)inmathcal F$



How do we guarantee that$P(A)$ $forall Ain mathcal F $
is equal to $P_X(B)forall Bin mathcal B$



or How we show that $int _AdP=int _BdP_X$
where $A=$ $X^{-1}(B)$ $forall Bin mathcal B$



I know this maybe intuitive but I want have a strict mathematics proof to show this two things is equal










share|cite|improve this question



























    0














    A random variable is a function that transform a probability space to another space is built up on real number



    i.e ($Omega,mathcal F,P)to(Bbb R,mathcal B,P_X$)



    and a random variable is call measurable if $forall B in mathcal B$ $X^{-1}(B)inmathcal F$



    How do we guarantee that$P(A)$ $forall Ain mathcal F $
    is equal to $P_X(B)forall Bin mathcal B$



    or How we show that $int _AdP=int _BdP_X$
    where $A=$ $X^{-1}(B)$ $forall Bin mathcal B$



    I know this maybe intuitive but I want have a strict mathematics proof to show this two things is equal










    share|cite|improve this question

























      0












      0








      0







      A random variable is a function that transform a probability space to another space is built up on real number



      i.e ($Omega,mathcal F,P)to(Bbb R,mathcal B,P_X$)



      and a random variable is call measurable if $forall B in mathcal B$ $X^{-1}(B)inmathcal F$



      How do we guarantee that$P(A)$ $forall Ain mathcal F $
      is equal to $P_X(B)forall Bin mathcal B$



      or How we show that $int _AdP=int _BdP_X$
      where $A=$ $X^{-1}(B)$ $forall Bin mathcal B$



      I know this maybe intuitive but I want have a strict mathematics proof to show this two things is equal










      share|cite|improve this question













      A random variable is a function that transform a probability space to another space is built up on real number



      i.e ($Omega,mathcal F,P)to(Bbb R,mathcal B,P_X$)



      and a random variable is call measurable if $forall B in mathcal B$ $X^{-1}(B)inmathcal F$



      How do we guarantee that$P(A)$ $forall Ain mathcal F $
      is equal to $P_X(B)forall Bin mathcal B$



      or How we show that $int _AdP=int _BdP_X$
      where $A=$ $X^{-1}(B)$ $forall Bin mathcal B$



      I know this maybe intuitive but I want have a strict mathematics proof to show this two things is equal







      probability probability-theory measure-theory






      share|cite|improve this question













      share|cite|improve this question











      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question










      asked Nov 22 '18 at 1:10









      Vergil ChanVergil Chan

      334




      334






















          1 Answer
          1






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          oldest

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          2














          That's because the construction of the probability measure $P^{X}$.



          You can see that $forall Bin mathcal{B}, hspace{0.3 cm}$ $P^{X}(B):=P(X^{-1}(B))$ is indeed a probability measure in the space $(mathbb{R},mathcal{B})$. (Check that it satisfies the axioms of probability)



          Therefore,
          $ forall Bin mathcal{B} hspace{0.2 cm}$ if we define $A=X^{-1}(B)in mathcal{F}$



          we have that
          $P^{X}(B)=P(X^{-1}(B))=P(A)$






          share|cite|improve this answer























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            1 Answer
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            1 Answer
            1






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            active

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            active

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            2














            That's because the construction of the probability measure $P^{X}$.



            You can see that $forall Bin mathcal{B}, hspace{0.3 cm}$ $P^{X}(B):=P(X^{-1}(B))$ is indeed a probability measure in the space $(mathbb{R},mathcal{B})$. (Check that it satisfies the axioms of probability)



            Therefore,
            $ forall Bin mathcal{B} hspace{0.2 cm}$ if we define $A=X^{-1}(B)in mathcal{F}$



            we have that
            $P^{X}(B)=P(X^{-1}(B))=P(A)$






            share|cite|improve this answer




























              2














              That's because the construction of the probability measure $P^{X}$.



              You can see that $forall Bin mathcal{B}, hspace{0.3 cm}$ $P^{X}(B):=P(X^{-1}(B))$ is indeed a probability measure in the space $(mathbb{R},mathcal{B})$. (Check that it satisfies the axioms of probability)



              Therefore,
              $ forall Bin mathcal{B} hspace{0.2 cm}$ if we define $A=X^{-1}(B)in mathcal{F}$



              we have that
              $P^{X}(B)=P(X^{-1}(B))=P(A)$






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                2












                2








                2






                That's because the construction of the probability measure $P^{X}$.



                You can see that $forall Bin mathcal{B}, hspace{0.3 cm}$ $P^{X}(B):=P(X^{-1}(B))$ is indeed a probability measure in the space $(mathbb{R},mathcal{B})$. (Check that it satisfies the axioms of probability)



                Therefore,
                $ forall Bin mathcal{B} hspace{0.2 cm}$ if we define $A=X^{-1}(B)in mathcal{F}$



                we have that
                $P^{X}(B)=P(X^{-1}(B))=P(A)$






                share|cite|improve this answer














                That's because the construction of the probability measure $P^{X}$.



                You can see that $forall Bin mathcal{B}, hspace{0.3 cm}$ $P^{X}(B):=P(X^{-1}(B))$ is indeed a probability measure in the space $(mathbb{R},mathcal{B})$. (Check that it satisfies the axioms of probability)



                Therefore,
                $ forall Bin mathcal{B} hspace{0.2 cm}$ if we define $A=X^{-1}(B)in mathcal{F}$



                we have that
                $P^{X}(B)=P(X^{-1}(B))=P(A)$







                share|cite|improve this answer














                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Nov 22 '18 at 2:41









                Graham Kemp

                84.7k43378




                84.7k43378










                answered Nov 22 '18 at 1:45









                GuilleAlAlGuilleAlAl

                212




                212






























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