Compactly supported $f in L^1$. Then $hat f$ can be extended to an holomorphic function on $mathbb C$












1












$begingroup$


Compactly supported $f in L^1$. Then $hat f$ can be extended to an holomorphic function on $mathbb C$, where $hat f$ is the fourier transform of f.



I tried the following



$hat f(x)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}int_{mathbb{R}}f(t)exp(-itx) dlambda(t)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}int_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)exp(-itx) dt=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}int_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{(-itx)^n}{n!}dt=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}sum_{n=0}^{infty}x^nint_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)frac{(-it)^n}{n!}dt=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}x^na_ndt$



with $a_n:=int_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)frac{(-it)^n}{n!}$



so $hat f(x)$ can be written as a power series.



For interchanging integration and summation I thought:



For $x in mathbb C$ with $|x|le T$ and $mathrm{supp} f subseteq [-R,R]$ we have



$int sum_{n=0}^{infty}|f(t)||frac{(-itx)^n}{n!}|le sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{(RT)^n}{n!}|f|_1=e^{RT}|f|_1<infty$



and then using dominated convergence theorem










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    If you are not sure it probably means you should try to replace at the end the DCT by a direct bound (using that the series converges in $L^1([c,d])$ with $[c,d]$ containing $supp(f)$ and that $int_c^d$ is continuous in $L^1([c,d])$)
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jan 16 at 3:14












  • $begingroup$
    Why did you delete your question about Fourier series? I put some time into answering it.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 19 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    @zhw. I revoked it
    $endgroup$
    – user626880
    Jan 19 at 20:13










  • $begingroup$
    I know you did. I was wondering why.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 19 at 20:15
















1












$begingroup$


Compactly supported $f in L^1$. Then $hat f$ can be extended to an holomorphic function on $mathbb C$, where $hat f$ is the fourier transform of f.



I tried the following



$hat f(x)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}int_{mathbb{R}}f(t)exp(-itx) dlambda(t)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}int_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)exp(-itx) dt=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}int_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{(-itx)^n}{n!}dt=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}sum_{n=0}^{infty}x^nint_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)frac{(-it)^n}{n!}dt=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}x^na_ndt$



with $a_n:=int_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)frac{(-it)^n}{n!}$



so $hat f(x)$ can be written as a power series.



For interchanging integration and summation I thought:



For $x in mathbb C$ with $|x|le T$ and $mathrm{supp} f subseteq [-R,R]$ we have



$int sum_{n=0}^{infty}|f(t)||frac{(-itx)^n}{n!}|le sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{(RT)^n}{n!}|f|_1=e^{RT}|f|_1<infty$



and then using dominated convergence theorem










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    If you are not sure it probably means you should try to replace at the end the DCT by a direct bound (using that the series converges in $L^1([c,d])$ with $[c,d]$ containing $supp(f)$ and that $int_c^d$ is continuous in $L^1([c,d])$)
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jan 16 at 3:14












  • $begingroup$
    Why did you delete your question about Fourier series? I put some time into answering it.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 19 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    @zhw. I revoked it
    $endgroup$
    – user626880
    Jan 19 at 20:13










  • $begingroup$
    I know you did. I was wondering why.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 19 at 20:15














1












1








1





$begingroup$


Compactly supported $f in L^1$. Then $hat f$ can be extended to an holomorphic function on $mathbb C$, where $hat f$ is the fourier transform of f.



I tried the following



$hat f(x)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}int_{mathbb{R}}f(t)exp(-itx) dlambda(t)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}int_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)exp(-itx) dt=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}int_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{(-itx)^n}{n!}dt=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}sum_{n=0}^{infty}x^nint_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)frac{(-it)^n}{n!}dt=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}x^na_ndt$



with $a_n:=int_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)frac{(-it)^n}{n!}$



so $hat f(x)$ can be written as a power series.



For interchanging integration and summation I thought:



For $x in mathbb C$ with $|x|le T$ and $mathrm{supp} f subseteq [-R,R]$ we have



$int sum_{n=0}^{infty}|f(t)||frac{(-itx)^n}{n!}|le sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{(RT)^n}{n!}|f|_1=e^{RT}|f|_1<infty$



and then using dominated convergence theorem










share|cite|improve this question









$endgroup$




Compactly supported $f in L^1$. Then $hat f$ can be extended to an holomorphic function on $mathbb C$, where $hat f$ is the fourier transform of f.



I tried the following



$hat f(x)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}int_{mathbb{R}}f(t)exp(-itx) dlambda(t)=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}int_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)exp(-itx) dt=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}int_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{(-itx)^n}{n!}dt=frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}sum_{n=0}^{infty}x^nint_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)frac{(-it)^n}{n!}dt=sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{1}{sqrt{2 pi}}x^na_ndt$



with $a_n:=int_{-infty}^{infty}f(t)frac{(-it)^n}{n!}$



so $hat f(x)$ can be written as a power series.



For interchanging integration and summation I thought:



For $x in mathbb C$ with $|x|le T$ and $mathrm{supp} f subseteq [-R,R]$ we have



$int sum_{n=0}^{infty}|f(t)||frac{(-itx)^n}{n!}|le sum_{n=0}^{infty}frac{(RT)^n}{n!}|f|_1=e^{RT}|f|_1<infty$



and then using dominated convergence theorem







complex-analysis fourier-transform






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share|cite|improve this question











share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question










asked Jan 15 at 19:53









user626880user626880

204




204












  • $begingroup$
    If you are not sure it probably means you should try to replace at the end the DCT by a direct bound (using that the series converges in $L^1([c,d])$ with $[c,d]$ containing $supp(f)$ and that $int_c^d$ is continuous in $L^1([c,d])$)
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jan 16 at 3:14












  • $begingroup$
    Why did you delete your question about Fourier series? I put some time into answering it.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 19 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    @zhw. I revoked it
    $endgroup$
    – user626880
    Jan 19 at 20:13










  • $begingroup$
    I know you did. I was wondering why.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 19 at 20:15


















  • $begingroup$
    If you are not sure it probably means you should try to replace at the end the DCT by a direct bound (using that the series converges in $L^1([c,d])$ with $[c,d]$ containing $supp(f)$ and that $int_c^d$ is continuous in $L^1([c,d])$)
    $endgroup$
    – reuns
    Jan 16 at 3:14












  • $begingroup$
    Why did you delete your question about Fourier series? I put some time into answering it.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 19 at 20:01










  • $begingroup$
    @zhw. I revoked it
    $endgroup$
    – user626880
    Jan 19 at 20:13










  • $begingroup$
    I know you did. I was wondering why.
    $endgroup$
    – zhw.
    Jan 19 at 20:15
















$begingroup$
If you are not sure it probably means you should try to replace at the end the DCT by a direct bound (using that the series converges in $L^1([c,d])$ with $[c,d]$ containing $supp(f)$ and that $int_c^d$ is continuous in $L^1([c,d])$)
$endgroup$
– reuns
Jan 16 at 3:14






$begingroup$
If you are not sure it probably means you should try to replace at the end the DCT by a direct bound (using that the series converges in $L^1([c,d])$ with $[c,d]$ containing $supp(f)$ and that $int_c^d$ is continuous in $L^1([c,d])$)
$endgroup$
– reuns
Jan 16 at 3:14














$begingroup$
Why did you delete your question about Fourier series? I put some time into answering it.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jan 19 at 20:01




$begingroup$
Why did you delete your question about Fourier series? I put some time into answering it.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jan 19 at 20:01












$begingroup$
@zhw. I revoked it
$endgroup$
– user626880
Jan 19 at 20:13




$begingroup$
@zhw. I revoked it
$endgroup$
– user626880
Jan 19 at 20:13












$begingroup$
I know you did. I was wondering why.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jan 19 at 20:15




$begingroup$
I know you did. I was wondering why.
$endgroup$
– zhw.
Jan 19 at 20:15










1 Answer
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Yes, this works.



More generally, suppose $(T, Sigma, mu)$ is a $sigma$-finite measure space, $g: T times U to mathbb C$ is a measurable function (where $U subseteq mathbb C$ is open) such that $g(t, cdot)$ is analytic in $U$ for each $t$ and uniformly bounded on $T times K$ for all compact subsets $K$ of $U$, and
$f in L^1(mu)$. Then $F(z) = int_T f(t) g(t,z); dmu(t)$ is analytic in $U$. For this you can use Morera's theorem, as for any closed contour $C$ in $U$ whose inside is in $U$,



$$ oint_C F(z); dz = oint_C int_T f(t) g(t,z); dmu(t) ; dz
= int_T oint_C f(t) g(t,z); dz ; dmu(t) = 0 $$






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    $begingroup$

    Yes, this works.



    More generally, suppose $(T, Sigma, mu)$ is a $sigma$-finite measure space, $g: T times U to mathbb C$ is a measurable function (where $U subseteq mathbb C$ is open) such that $g(t, cdot)$ is analytic in $U$ for each $t$ and uniformly bounded on $T times K$ for all compact subsets $K$ of $U$, and
    $f in L^1(mu)$. Then $F(z) = int_T f(t) g(t,z); dmu(t)$ is analytic in $U$. For this you can use Morera's theorem, as for any closed contour $C$ in $U$ whose inside is in $U$,



    $$ oint_C F(z); dz = oint_C int_T f(t) g(t,z); dmu(t) ; dz
    = int_T oint_C f(t) g(t,z); dz ; dmu(t) = 0 $$






    share|cite|improve this answer









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      1












      $begingroup$

      Yes, this works.



      More generally, suppose $(T, Sigma, mu)$ is a $sigma$-finite measure space, $g: T times U to mathbb C$ is a measurable function (where $U subseteq mathbb C$ is open) such that $g(t, cdot)$ is analytic in $U$ for each $t$ and uniformly bounded on $T times K$ for all compact subsets $K$ of $U$, and
      $f in L^1(mu)$. Then $F(z) = int_T f(t) g(t,z); dmu(t)$ is analytic in $U$. For this you can use Morera's theorem, as for any closed contour $C$ in $U$ whose inside is in $U$,



      $$ oint_C F(z); dz = oint_C int_T f(t) g(t,z); dmu(t) ; dz
      = int_T oint_C f(t) g(t,z); dz ; dmu(t) = 0 $$






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        1












        1








        1





        $begingroup$

        Yes, this works.



        More generally, suppose $(T, Sigma, mu)$ is a $sigma$-finite measure space, $g: T times U to mathbb C$ is a measurable function (where $U subseteq mathbb C$ is open) such that $g(t, cdot)$ is analytic in $U$ for each $t$ and uniformly bounded on $T times K$ for all compact subsets $K$ of $U$, and
        $f in L^1(mu)$. Then $F(z) = int_T f(t) g(t,z); dmu(t)$ is analytic in $U$. For this you can use Morera's theorem, as for any closed contour $C$ in $U$ whose inside is in $U$,



        $$ oint_C F(z); dz = oint_C int_T f(t) g(t,z); dmu(t) ; dz
        = int_T oint_C f(t) g(t,z); dz ; dmu(t) = 0 $$






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        Yes, this works.



        More generally, suppose $(T, Sigma, mu)$ is a $sigma$-finite measure space, $g: T times U to mathbb C$ is a measurable function (where $U subseteq mathbb C$ is open) such that $g(t, cdot)$ is analytic in $U$ for each $t$ and uniformly bounded on $T times K$ for all compact subsets $K$ of $U$, and
        $f in L^1(mu)$. Then $F(z) = int_T f(t) g(t,z); dmu(t)$ is analytic in $U$. For this you can use Morera's theorem, as for any closed contour $C$ in $U$ whose inside is in $U$,



        $$ oint_C F(z); dz = oint_C int_T f(t) g(t,z); dmu(t) ; dz
        = int_T oint_C f(t) g(t,z); dz ; dmu(t) = 0 $$







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered Jan 15 at 20:29









        Robert IsraelRobert Israel

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        324k23214468






























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